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John Jones
Posted: Sun Dec 14, 2003 4:43 pm
Guest
Infinity in maths is the option to repeat an instruction. We can't
extrapolate infinity from that, because we have to make each step. Infinity
is contingent application, and so is not enumerated.

JJ
Immortalist
Posted: Mon Dec 15, 2003 12:45 pm
Guest
"John Jones" <john.jones53@tesco.net> wrote in message
news:brj73s$q9l$1@hercules.btinternet.com...
Quote:
Infinity in maths is the option to repeat an instruction. We can't
extrapolate infinity from that, because we have to make each step.
Infinity
is contingent application, and so is not enumerated.


But the contingency arises because elements of the argument can be replaced
by many other elements and still be valid and or sound. In order to make
your claim you must define the cut of point for the rule of addition:

p
q
therfeore p and q (p v q)

Your application is valid analytcally by this rule. But now you are focusing
upon the grammar of applications in relation to each other not the
verifiable rule of addition. Its as if you are talking about sentence
structures but make claims about paragraphs.

p = rock 1

q = rock 2

throw both rocks in a box and claim:

therefore (p . q)

Quote:
JJ


Tony Thomas
Posted: Mon Dec 15, 2003 9:30 pm
Guest
"John Jones" <john.jones53@tesco.net> wrote in message
news:brj73s$q9l$1@hercules.btinternet.com...
Quote:
Infinity in maths is the option to repeat an instruction.

The derivation of a finite mathematical limit to infinity (of a diminishing
geometric progression, say) does not involve any algorithmic repetition but
just the assumption that a term in the denominator of an expression tends to
infinity.

We can't
Quote:
extrapolate infinity from that, because we have to make each step.
Infinity
is contingent application, and so is not enumerated.

JJ

It is not very clear here what infinity is supposed to be contingent upon.
It is clear that finite enumeration cannot 'lead' to an infinite entity, it
can only 'point' to it. (a finger pointing to the Moon).

There is a means of defining infinite categories through
language or through logic. The general use of the term 'all', suggests that
there are infinite (non-finite) categories but this depends on whether the
universe of discourse is finite or not. For example, I might define the set
of all other atoms in the universe, other than those in my body. It seems
that this category should be finite rather than infinite, but one
cannot be sure. Failing this, one might redefine this as spatial volumes not
occupied by my body. The general method involved is to define the complement
of a finite entity to see if it is infinite or not. Taking some real
category as a starting point seems bound to lead to a finite complement
assuming the cosmos is finite in space and time.

The formulas of sentential logic (eg pvqv~r) may have CNF strings of
unlimited length. If one defines a set of all formulas other than say
(~(~pvq)v~p)vq then it seems that such a set would be infinite, even if
restricted to two
variables.

The assumption that there are infinitely many such unique forms depends on
the possibilities inherent in number and its combinatorial powers. One is
tempted by this example to assume that all potentially infinite categories
are so by virtue of number.

The alternative to beginning with some finite category is to boldly define a
mental object as having an infinite attribute. A familiar example is a
polygon with infinitely many sides, commonly assumed to be a circle. One
might argue, however, that this example is just an illicit short cut to
taking a stepwise limit through all the preceding polygons.

One approach to the infinite is to define two sets of 'numbers'; A and B,
where every member of A is less than every member of B. eg A = {1,2,3,4,5},
B ={7,11,13}satisfies this condition.

If we redefine M to be the set of positive integers, it seems clear that N
will contain no integers at all under the required condition of inequality.
However, it is simple matter to introduce some new 'infinite' entities
which satisfy the condition.

M = N* = {1*,2*,3*,...}, where N = {1, 2, 3 ...}

The result is a theory of infinite numbers very different from the one
proposed by Cantor.
For example, there would by no infinte cardinal (aleph null) associated with
the set natural numbers. The assumption is that such sets are both
incompleteable and
incomplete.

Aesthetically, it is much nicer to be able to say 1* + 1* = 2* and all the
rest, and to relate these infinite numbers to their finite equivalents thus:
a*/b* = a/b. This implies the operation 1* x a = a*, from which follows the
duplication of the real numbers in the infinite region: 1* x r = r*.

Multiplication of such infinite numbers generates hierarchies of infinity eg
a* x
b* = (ab)**.
Similarly, a hierarchy of infinitesimals can also be generated. The
implication
is that the real continuum is 'porous' with respect to these numbers. It
follows that absolute continuity is unobtainable because no hierarch can
reach absolute infinity.
John Jones
Posted: Fri Dec 19, 2003 5:03 pm
Guest
Quote:
But the contingency arises because elements of the argument can be
replaced
by many other elements and still be valid and or sound. In order to make
your claim you must define the cut of point for the rule of addition:

I was not saying that. I was saying that a contingency of application of
maths is independent to an application. But then that can't be right. Maths
itself is the contingency. Contingencies cannot then be said to arise, and
their expression to follow. 'Contingency' is a very bad word that leads to
much misunderstanding. Contingencies are expressed by a particular case, and
never stands alone. Infinity is contingent application, where contingent
does not refer to a particular case, as in a particular case of counting. So
infinity cannot be an application of a count. So Infinity masquerades as a
mathematical concept, when it is in fact a concept of 'contingent'
application-, and not a 'potential' or 'possible' application.
JJ


"Immortalist" <Reanimater_2000@yahoo.com> wrote in message
news:vtrsumqrco5r52@corp.supernews.com...
Quote:

"John Jones" <john.jones53@tesco.net> wrote in message
news:brj73s$q9l$1@hercules.btinternet.com...
Infinity in maths is the option to repeat an instruction. We can't
extrapolate infinity from that, because we have to make each step.
Infinity
is contingent application, and so is not enumerated.


But the contingency arises because elements of the argument can be
replaced
by many other elements and still be valid and or sound. In order to make
your claim you must define the cut of point for the rule of addition:

p
q
therfeore p and q (p v q)

Your application is valid analytcally by this rule. But now you are
focusing
upon the grammar of applications in relation to each other not the
verifiable rule of addition. Its as if you are talking about sentence
structures but make claims about paragraphs.

p = rock 1

q = rock 2

throw both rocks in a box and claim:

therefore (p . q)

JJ




John Jones
Posted: Fri Dec 19, 2003 5:36 pm
Guest
Quote:
The derivation of a finite mathematical limit to infinity (of a
diminishing
geometric progression, say) does not involve any algorithmic repetition
but
just the assumption that a term in the denominator of an expression tends
to
infinity.

No -here is the serious mistake in that, and I am sure that you can see
this:
'Tends' to infinity is not an application. 'Tend' is not a mathematical
application. 'Tend' is the sign that logic uses to generalise an operation,
and that doesn't mean that the particular case is therefore limitless.
Ta. I'll repost that at top.

Quote:
It is not very clear here what infinity is supposed to be contingent upon.

Yes. It can't be clear as to what contigency is except by referring to the
particular case. Infinity is contingent upon its expression. But that just
means that contingency is the expression. But what was the contingency of
applying a function in maths? Did maths tell us how far we are to apply that
function? Yes, by limits, but maths does not set those limits. Those limits
are contingent. 'Infinity' merely does not consider limits, so it's only
position in maths is as 'contingent application of functions.'


Quote:
There is a means of defining infinite categories through
language or through logic. The general use of the term 'all', suggests
that
there are infinite (non-finite) categories but this depends on whether the
universe of discourse is finite or not.

'Infinite' is an application claiming to be mathematical. 'All' and infinite
are not found in maths. Each particular case is represented, but each
particular case is not counted, unless another contingency requires us to
apply a mathematical count to particular cases. Particular cases do not
count themselves. They are contingent upon a mathematical operation that
counts them. Maths does not manufacture it's own particular cases. The
operation of counting a particular case is independent of the
non-mathematical operation of presenting 'all' particular cases.

Quote:
One approach to the infinite is to define two sets of 'numbers'; A and B,
where every member of A is less than every member of B. eg A =
{1,2,3,4,5},
B ={7,11,13}satisfies this condition.

'every' is not a mathematical operation, because mathematics presents
particular cases.
There are no 'infinite' numbers. That idea is a fancy- and not of
mathematics doing.
JJ

"Tony Thomas" <verdigris@iprimus.com.au> wrote in message
news:3fde7611_1@news.iprimus.com.au...
Quote:

"John Jones" <john.jones53@tesco.net> wrote in message
news:brj73s$q9l$1@hercules.btinternet.com...
Infinity in maths is the option to repeat an instruction.

The derivation of a finite mathematical limit to infinity (of a
diminishing
geometric progression, say) does not involve any algorithmic repetition
but
just the assumption that a term in the denominator of an expression tends
to
infinity.

We can't
extrapolate infinity from that, because we have to make each step.
Infinity
is contingent application, and so is not enumerated.

JJ

It is not very clear here what infinity is supposed to be contingent upon.
It is clear that finite enumeration cannot 'lead' to an infinite entity,
it
can only 'point' to it. (a finger pointing to the Moon).

There is a means of defining infinite categories through
language or through logic. The general use of the term 'all', suggests
that
there are infinite (non-finite) categories but this depends on whether the
universe of discourse is finite or not. For example, I might define the
set
of all other atoms in the universe, other than those in my body. It seems
that this category should be finite rather than infinite, but one
cannot be sure. Failing this, one might redefine this as spatial volumes
not
occupied by my body. The general method involved is to define the
complement
of a finite entity to see if it is infinite or not. Taking some real
category as a starting point seems bound to lead to a finite complement
assuming the cosmos is finite in space and time.

The formulas of sentential logic (eg pvqv~r) may have CNF strings of
unlimited length. If one defines a set of all formulas other than say
(~(~pvq)v~p)vq then it seems that such a set would be infinite, even if
restricted to two
variables.

The assumption that there are infinitely many such unique forms depends on
the possibilities inherent in number and its combinatorial powers. One is
tempted by this example to assume that all potentially infinite categories
are so by virtue of number.

The alternative to beginning with some finite category is to boldly define
a
mental object as having an infinite attribute. A familiar example is a
polygon with infinitely many sides, commonly assumed to be a circle. One
might argue, however, that this example is just an illicit short cut to
taking a stepwise limit through all the preceding polygons.

One approach to the infinite is to define two sets of 'numbers'; A and B,
where every member of A is less than every member of B. eg A =
{1,2,3,4,5},
B ={7,11,13}satisfies this condition.

If we redefine M to be the set of positive integers, it seems clear that
N
will contain no integers at all under the required condition of
inequality.
However, it is simple matter to introduce some new 'infinite' entities
which satisfy the condition.

M = N* = {1*,2*,3*,...}, where N = {1, 2, 3 ...}

The result is a theory of infinite numbers very different from the one
proposed by Cantor.
For example, there would by no infinte cardinal (aleph null) associated
with
the set natural numbers. The assumption is that such sets are both
incompleteable and
incomplete.

Aesthetically, it is much nicer to be able to say 1* + 1* = 2* and all the
rest, and to relate these infinite numbers to their finite equivalents
thus:
a*/b* = a/b. This implies the operation 1* x a = a*, from which follows
the
duplication of the real numbers in the infinite region: 1* x r = r*.

Multiplication of such infinite numbers generates hierarchies of infinity
eg
a* x
b* = (ab)**.
Similarly, a hierarchy of infinitesimals can also be generated. The
implication
is that the real continuum is 'porous' with respect to these numbers. It
follows that absolute continuity is unobtainable because no hierarch can
reach absolute infinity.


Tony Thomas
Posted: Sat Dec 20, 2003 10:59 pm
Guest
"John Jones" <john.jones53@tesco.net> wrote in message
news:bs0g4n$rfq$1@sparta.btinternet.com...
Quote:
There are no 'infinite' numbers. That idea is a fancy- and not of
mathematics doing.
JJ

If there are infinite sets then there are infinite number(s), although the
use of the term cardinality
is an obfuscation which obscures this idea.

The cardinality of the set N purports to represent (stand for) the number of
elements in the set of natural numbers, either that or it is meaningless.
Furthermore, the cardinality of the set of real numbers is supposed to be
greater than aleph null. To argue that such 'totalities' are not numbers is
therefore incorrect. It is certainly the case that they are not finite
numbers but this should be obvious from the definition.

To put it another way, a totality may be presumed to be a meaningful
category even when enumeration is impossible. A great many finite totals can
not be exactly enumerated (eg the number of humans presently alive) as well
as the totalities of infinite sets.

While it has proved useful to base number theory on sets, this is not a
necessary approach. The original impetus was in the hope of reducing the
foundations of mathematics to logic but Godel showed this was not possible.

To say there are no infinite numbers is like saying there are no complex
numbers. Such abstractions are mental fictions which may be invented at
will. If one wishes to define infinite numbers, in a consistent and
meaningful way, then there is no reason they should not be accorded a
similar status to other mental fictions (eg quaternions).

Tony Thomas
Immortalist
Posted: Sun Dec 21, 2003 1:05 pm
Guest
"John Jones" <john.jones53@tesco.net> wrote in message
news:bs0e5h$p92$1@sparta.btinternet.com...
Quote:
But the contingency arises because elements of the argument can be
replaced
by many other elements and still be valid and or sound. In order to make
your claim you must define the cut of point for the rule of addition:

I was not saying that. I was saying that a contingency of application of
maths is independent to an application. But then that can't be right.
Maths
itself is the contingency. Contingencies cannot then be said to arise, and
their expression to follow. 'Contingency' is a very bad word that leads to
much misunderstanding. Contingencies are expressed by a particular case,
and
never stands alone. Infinity is contingent application, where contingent
does not refer to a particular case, as in a particular case of counting.
So
infinity cannot be an application of a count. So Infinity masquerades as a
mathematical concept, when it is in fact a concept of 'contingent'
application-, and not a 'potential' or 'possible' application.
JJ


Then you believe the Sun will rise tommorow even though you cannot know it
will or not?

Quote:

"Immortalist" <Reanimater_2000@yahoo.com> wrote in message
news:vtrsumqrco5r52@corp.supernews.com...

"John Jones" <john.jones53@tesco.net> wrote in message
news:brj73s$q9l$1@hercules.btinternet.com...
Infinity in maths is the option to repeat an instruction. We can't
extrapolate infinity from that, because we have to make each step.
Infinity
is contingent application, and so is not enumerated.


But the contingency arises because elements of the argument can be
replaced
by many other elements and still be valid and or sound. In order to make
your claim you must define the cut of point for the rule of addition:

p
q
therfeore p and q (p v q)

Your application is valid analytcally by this rule. But now you are
focusing
upon the grammar of applications in relation to each other not the
verifiable rule of addition. Its as if you are talking about sentence
structures but make claims about paragraphs.

p = rock 1

q = rock 2

throw both rocks in a box and claim:

therefore (p . q)

JJ






John Jones
Posted: Sun Dec 21, 2003 5:41 pm
Guest
I never considered how the sun 'will' arise, but I saw it rising.
JJ

"Immortalist" <Reanimater_2000@yahoo.com> wrote in message
news:vubocd9iv5reee@corp.supernews.com...
Quote:

"John Jones" <john.jones53@tesco.net> wrote in message
news:bs0e5h$p92$1@sparta.btinternet.com...
But the contingency arises because elements of the argument can be
replaced
by many other elements and still be valid and or sound. In order to
make
your claim you must define the cut of point for the rule of addition:

I was not saying that. I was saying that a contingency of application of
maths is independent to an application. But then that can't be right.
Maths
itself is the contingency. Contingencies cannot then be said to arise,
and
their expression to follow. 'Contingency' is a very bad word that leads
to
much misunderstanding. Contingencies are expressed by a particular case,
and
never stands alone. Infinity is contingent application, where contingent
does not refer to a particular case, as in a particular case of
counting.
So
infinity cannot be an application of a count. So Infinity masquerades as
a
mathematical concept, when it is in fact a concept of 'contingent'
application-, and not a 'potential' or 'possible' application.
JJ


Then you believe the Sun will rise tommorow even though you cannot know it
will or not?


"Immortalist" <Reanimater_2000@yahoo.com> wrote in message
news:vtrsumqrco5r52@corp.supernews.com...

"John Jones" <john.jones53@tesco.net> wrote in message
news:brj73s$q9l$1@hercules.btinternet.com...
Infinity in maths is the option to repeat an instruction. We can't
extrapolate infinity from that, because we have to make each step.
Infinity
is contingent application, and so is not enumerated.


But the contingency arises because elements of the argument can be
replaced
by many other elements and still be valid and or sound. In order to
make
your claim you must define the cut of point for the rule of addition:

p
q
therfeore p and q (p v q)

Your application is valid analytcally by this rule. But now you are
focusing
upon the grammar of applications in relation to each other not the
verifiable rule of addition. Its as if you are talking about sentence
structures but make claims about paragraphs.

p = rock 1

q = rock 2

throw both rocks in a box and claim:

therefore (p . q)

JJ








John Jones
Posted: Sun Dec 21, 2003 6:13 pm
Guest
Quote:
If there are infinite sets then there are infinite number(s), although the
use of the term cardinality

There aren't infinite sets. Infinite sets can only be grouped through the
name of one set, and that set can present no names that can represent
infinity. A set with no names is not a set.

Quote:
The original impetus was in the hope of reducing the
foundations of mathematics to logic but Godel showed this was not
possible.


Not possible? That sounds like Godel tried to use mathematics to represent
possibility.

JJ


"Tony Thomas" <verdigris@iprimus.com.au> wrote in message
news:3fe51ab6_1@news.iprimus.com.au...
Quote:
"John Jones" <john.jones53@tesco.net> wrote in message
news:bs0g4n$rfq$1@sparta.btinternet.com...
There are no 'infinite' numbers. That idea is a fancy- and not of
mathematics doing.
JJ

If there are infinite sets then there are infinite number(s), although the
use of the term cardinality
is an obfuscation which obscures this idea.

The cardinality of the set N purports to represent (stand for) the number
of
elements in the set of natural numbers, either that or it is meaningless.
Furthermore, the cardinality of the set of real numbers is supposed to be
greater than aleph null. To argue that such 'totalities' are not numbers
is
therefore incorrect. It is certainly the case that they are not finite
numbers but this should be obvious from the definition.

To put it another way, a totality may be presumed to be a meaningful
category even when enumeration is impossible. A great many finite totals
can
not be exactly enumerated (eg the number of humans presently alive) as
well
as the totalities of infinite sets.

While it has proved useful to base number theory on sets, this is not a
necessary approach. The original impetus was in the hope of reducing the
foundations of mathematics to logic but Godel showed this was not
possible.

To say there are no infinite numbers is like saying there are no complex
numbers. Such abstractions are mental fictions which may be invented at
will. If one wishes to define infinite numbers, in a consistent and
meaningful way, then there is no reason they should not be accorded a
similar status to other mental fictions (eg quaternions).

Tony Thomas






mitch
Posted: Mon Dec 22, 2003 12:11 am
Guest
Tony Thomas wrote:

Quote:
To say there are no infinite numbers is like saying there are no complex
numbers. Such abstractions are mental fictions which may be invented at
will. If one wishes to define infinite numbers, in a consistent and
meaningful way, then there is no reason they should not be accorded a
similar status to other mental fictions (eg quaternions).


There is a big diffference between "infinite numbers" and quaternions or complex
numbers.

There is something called a Lindenbaum algebra that can be formed for any
first-order language on the basis of equivalence under the deductive calculus.
Lindenbaum algebras are Boolean algebras which, by the Stone representation
theorem, are associated with compact Hausdorff spaces. Such spaces are always
associated with at least one almost periodic point.

Thus, every "logic" admits an "existence" outside of its domain.

The designs of philosophers that led to set theory and the rationalizations for
infinite numbers conflate the checks and balances in mathematical structure.
The number systems R, C, H, O all relate to each other in ways that preserve the
geometric relations of conic sections. Q and Z express themselves in R under
interpretation of a linear order with respect to a geometric line, and the
embedding of points in a line to orient such an association is equivalent to the
embedding of a quadratic field, once again introducing the constraint of conic
sections on the relations.

The same cannot be said of the naive approach taken to "infinite numbers."

Worse yet, after thinking about the technical details of this matter I am
finally turning to Aristotle only to find that much of this unsound reasoning
can be attributed to people simply ignoring basic statements that have served to
ground philosophy.

I am beginning to think that Bertrand Russell must have been the biggest idiot
in the history of philosophy. He chose to promote the ideas of a man (Frege)
whose own biographers note a lack of preparation in the philosophy against which
he was arguing.

The thought that "infinite numbers" are grounded in a mathematical sense seems
ludicrous given the rivalry between British empiricism and Continental
rationalism that I have seen mentioned in this newsgroup. Moreover, the more I
look into these matters, the more I find a historical enmity of philosophical
logicians for mathematicians. There is a great deal of "office politics" in the
development of "infinite numbers" that is quite atypical when compared with
other branches of mathematical inquiry.

:-)

mitch
Tony Thomas
Posted: Mon Dec 22, 2003 8:33 pm
Guest
In commenting on the topic of 'infinity' competent mathematicians (like
yourself) launch themselves into the stratosphere of doctrine in order to
escape the jaws of philosophical predators.

Countless theologians, philosophers, logicians and mathematicians (note the
order of precedence here) have spun various doctrinal webs about the matter.
Suffice to say there are different ways of looking at things and there is no
necessity for these ways to be consistent with each other (remember Kuhn).
Herein lies the advantage of philosophy over logic and mathematics;
tolerance of the inconsistent and the absurd may be considered by the
unprejudiced mind.

There is clearly (hate that word) a difference between (the respectability
of) complex numbers and 'infinite numbers' (your quotes presumably indicate
disapproval or disbelief) in that the former are completely integrated into
analysis and the latter have no place there. The similarity I was referring
to was their historical rejection by orthodoxy at some time or another, not
their similarity as mathematical constructions. Further, the construction of
a logico/mathematical entity E1 and of another E2, by means of meaningful
definitions, axioms and theorems lends them equal status from a logical
point of view regardless of whether they fit into existing, orthodox
theories. Here I'm regarding the whole of mathematics as consisting of more
or less well constructed theories, which it probably isn't. It was this
latter question, of the consistency of mathematics that led to R & Ws
abortive Principia Mathematica.

Now, quite a lot of respectable scientists ask questions like: "is the
cosmos of finite or infinite extent" or "can an electron possess infinite
energy." For such questions to be addressed, some precise meaning needs to
be attached to the word 'infinite'. Since particle physicists and
cosmologists are almost completely dependent on mathematics, one would
expect to find some 'useful' theories about the meaning of infinity there.
Furthermore, if physicists are actually forced to make calculations,
involving 'infinite' quantities, then mathematicians better come up with
something useable, just in case 'reality' does indulge itself in such
fanciful phenomena. From the point of view of an observer, largely ignorant
of the exalted logical and mathematical theories that might bear upon the
matter, it seems that such theories are non-existent or deficient.

The idea that there is something called 'mathematical sense' is an
intriguing one. That there is such a thing as mathematical ability seems to
be a well established fact. However, such ability is surely enhanced by
years of study and practice in the mathematical arts. If such study consists
in adopting existing orthodoxy holus-bolus, it is bound to induce what might
be called Kuhnian myopia. Such, I think, is the the cause of adverse
reactions to simple statements like; 'infinite numbers can be defined in
such a way that they can be incorporated into ordinary arithmetic.'

It would be a rash person who claims to understand the boundaries between
logic and mathematics. Once upon a time, logicians thought that
mathematicians should bow to their will and
construct everything from first principles (as defined by logicians) using
finely stepped proof structures. I suspect that this programme was never
feasible because attention to such detail would prove so tedious that no
creative work would ever get done. If such strict procedures were ever used,
it was likely for the purposes of validation and rationalisation after the
event. Otherwise, there would be no room at all for 'mathematical sense'
(intuition). Any enmity between mathematicians and logicians is likely to be
a struggle over who should make the rules and who should obey them.
Philosophers, of course, know that this prerogative belongs to them alone.

Returning to the question, 'are there such things as infinite numbers and
could there be a theory about them.' The first step, it seems to me, is to
admit that such entities can be defined (successfully or otherwise) and that
no existing doctrine should stand in the way of this simple step. After all,
Peano did stoop to defining finite cardinals from first principles, as if he
thought they did not exist prior to his work.

This leads to the annoying question as to what is meant by saying that
numbers like two 'exist'. If we define them on the basis of a certain type
of set, the regress as to whether abstract sets exist supervenes. From this
perspective, the existence of finite cardinals is as dubious as that of
infinite ones. The obvious objection is that sets of couples do refer to
actual occurrences in the world (states of affairs for Wittgenstein fans)
whereas infinite numbers or sets have no such 'real' correlates.

Another approach is to say, "no one knows much about the infinite, so I'll
define it in the way that pleases me and ignore what others have said." This
is convenient, because it saves time on studying the works of other
crackpots. Academics frown on this approach and you have to be a genius to
get away with it.

From a semantic point of view (with a dash of Hegel) one wonders how we can
know what 'finite' means if we have no idea what the contrary term
'infinite' means. If there is no meaning to be attached to the term
'infinite' then 'finite' seems to be redundant, and should be removed from
the dictionary. But this would alarm mathematicians who rely so much on the
'infinite', even if they pretend that the never actually touch the stuff but
only tend to inhale from a distance.

Making use of the dialectic, we can say "that which is infinite is not
finite"; a harmless enough tautology. The next step is to decide whether the
class of infinite entities is empty or not. Since we could decide either
way, on the basis of ignorance, we can decide that there is at least one
entity which can be said to be infinite. The alternative decision is that
there is a class of finite entities and nothing else exists beyond this
class. Then comes the silly question, "is this class inside itself or not?'
The more serious question arises, "is this class infinite or finite?" No
answer, came the stern reply.

But all this is obfuscation. If we are have to measure the length of God's
beard we are going to need a big number, much bigger that those old
fashioned naturals. So, why not have a new infinite unit fit for the job.
Hang on though, all this may not be necessary at all, since arithmetic is
independent of measures like feet inches, or God's beard length. The number
'1' will do just as well as it is. However, this would mean we could give up
the distinction between the finite and infinite as far as arithmetic is
concerned, as long as we don't try and mix up finite and infinite
measurements at the same time.

So, it seems that ordinary arithmetic will do very well for measure gods
body-parts as long as we don't try and compare them with our own. The divine
form may be comparable but the dimensions must remain incomparable.

The human mind is never satisfied, it yearns to reach beyond its last
thought, a tendency that leads us to suspect the existence of the infinite.
This principle of transcendence ought to be enshrined in meta-logic
somewhere, particularly since it underlies that illogical operator '+'.

If only we could say something 'naive', like I + 1 > I, but that damned
madman Cantor has already convinced everybody that Ao + 1 = Ao. Oh well,
that's the end of the matter then.

Tony Thomas























"mitch" <mitchs@rcn.com> wrote in message news:3FE67CF8.DCDEB562@rcn.com...
Quote:


Tony Thomas wrote:

To say there are no infinite numbers is like saying there are no complex
numbers. Such abstractions are mental fictions which may be invented at
will. If one wishes to define infinite numbers, in a consistent and
meaningful way, then there is no reason they should not be accorded a
similar status to other mental fictions (eg quaternions).


There is a big diffference between "infinite numbers" and quaternions or
complex
numbers.

There is something called a Lindenbaum algebra that can be formed for any
first-order language on the basis of equivalence under the deductive
calculus.
Lindenbaum algebras are Boolean algebras which, by the Stone
representation
theorem, are associated with compact Hausdorff spaces. Such spaces are
always
associated with at least one almost periodic point.

Thus, every "logic" admits an "existence" outside of its domain.

The designs of philosophers that led to set theory and the
rationalizations for
infinite numbers conflate the checks and balances in mathematical
structure.
The number systems R, C, H, O all relate to each other in ways that
preserve the
geometric relations of conic sections. Q and Z express themselves in R
under
interpretation of a linear order with respect to a geometric line, and the
embedding of points in a line to orient such an association is equivalent
to the
embedding of a quadratic field, once again introducing the constraint of
conic
sections on the relations.

The same cannot be said of the naive approach taken to "infinite numbers."

Worse yet, after thinking about the technical details of this matter I am
finally turning to Aristotle only to find that much of this unsound
reasoning
can be attributed to people simply ignoring basic statements that have
served to
ground philosophy.

I am beginning to think that Bertrand Russell must have been the biggest
idiot
in the history of philosophy. He chose to promote the ideas of a man
(Frege)
whose own biographers note a lack of preparation in the philosophy against
which
he was arguing.

The thought that "infinite numbers" are grounded in a mathematical sense
seems
ludicrous given the rivalry between British empiricism and Continental
rationalism that I have seen mentioned in this newsgroup. Moreover, the
more I
look into these matters, the more I find a historical enmity of
philosophical
logicians for mathematicians. There is a great deal of "office politics"
in the
development of "infinite numbers" that is quite atypical when compared
with
other branches of mathematical inquiry.

:-)

mitch

Tony Thomas
Posted: Mon Dec 22, 2003 11:02 pm
Guest
"John Jones" <john.jones53@tesco.net> wrote in message
news:bs5r0s$jlv$1@hercules.btinternet.com...
Quote:
If there are infinite sets then there are infinite number(s), although
the
use of the term cardinality

There aren't infinite sets. Infinite sets can only be grouped through the
name of one set, and that set can present no names that can represent
infinity. A set with no names is not a set.

Well, the set {n} and related sets such as {an + b} are usually regarded as
different from finite sets like {1,3,5} or the set of all even primes = {2}.
It is natural to regard the former kind as infinite in the sense that their
members are potentially inexhaustible. This inexhaustability raises some
dfifficult questions. Trying to enumerate {n} suggests that all its members
are finite. This can be shown by induction. If n set {n} Then (n+1) set {n)
But If n is finite Then (n+1) is finite.
All the mathematically defineable members of the set of natural numbers
appear to be finite. This seems to mean that there is no finite limit to the
memers of the set. To define this as an infinite set merely assigns this
meaning to the term infinite. In tghis sense, at least, there are such
things as infinite sets.

Quote:
The original impetus was in the hope of reducing the
foundations of mathematics to logic but Godel showed this was not
possible.

Not possible? That sounds like Godel tried to use mathematics to represent
possibility.

JJ

The meaning of impossible in the context of mathematics means impossible
without violating certain conditions or assumptions. In the case of the
Cantor diagonal, the impossibility was logical.
Perhaps the best known of such impossibilities is the search for a rational
fraction equal to the square root of two. Similarly, it is impossible to
find the square root of -1 among the real numbers.
Such impossibilities are the false propositions of mathematics. Square
circles and the sixth three dimensionsl solid lie within this neverland. In
logic, there are precisely as many false propositions as true ones. If we
know a proposition is false then we have found a corresponding true
proposition. Hence the frequent use of reductio ad absurdam in mathematics.

Tony Thomas
Immortalist
Posted: Tue Dec 23, 2003 5:22 pm
Guest
"Tony Thomas" <verdigris@iprimus.com.au> wrote in message
news:3fe7aefb_1@news.iprimus.com.au...
Quote:
In commenting on the topic of 'infinity' competent mathematicians (like
yourself) launch themselves into the stratosphere of doctrine in order to
escape the jaws of philosophical predators.


What do you think of this neuroscientists stratospheric launch?

10) WHAT IS INFINITY EXCEPT CONTINUITY?

Arthur and a few others have made comments about the mathematical treatment
of infinity and infinitesimals that only make it still plainer that it is
very important to understand that the claim of discreteness is a dangerous
ontological claim. Many wrong conclusions and intuitions can easily follow.

An excellent discussion of these matters is to be found in Robert Rosen's
recent Essays on Life Itself (Columbia, 2000). But the brief story is that
the real world is (as far as we can tell) fundamentally continuous - made of
unbroken stuff. Even the idea of discrete particles of force or matter is a
convenient fiction (see quantum mechanics). Mathematics is then a human
creation built on the idea of assuming the fiction of discreteness - on
treating reality as if it were discontinuous, breaking it into parts and
relationships that can then be used within computational formula to model
reality with various degrees of accuracy. Troubles then arise because people
treat the models as the reality. Reality is assumed to be actually discrete
because the maths seems to be working.

[Arthur]
Nevertheless, I thought I'd reply here just to mention that indeed
infinitesimals have been reintroduced into mathematics in a rigorous way by
Abraham Robinson starting in the 50's. The field of analysis, and the
calculus, too has been rigorously based on these numbers which do just what
you expect good infinitesimals to do

[John McCrone]
When mathematics begins to talk about infinity, you know it is attempting to
grapple with the continuous. The number line is continuous and unbroken. A
point on the number line is a convenient fiction. The philosophically
correct position to take on infinitesimals is the one of limits - the
position of Aristotle and Zeno that infinity and infinitesimals are not
actual, instead they describe a potential, the potential to proceed in
iterative (ie: discrete!) steps without end because the mathematical goal
you are pursuing is continuous and unbroken.

Cantor eventually "tamed" infinity with set theory, simply asserting
infinity to be discrete (and deriving some useful mathematical outcomes from
this trick). The calculus likewise "tamed" the continuity of motion by
simply asserting the infinitesimal - pretending that a point of
instantaneous velocity could exist by a procedure of iterative steps that
minimised measurement error (note that the trick of calculus works only so
long as the trajectory of change is smooth).

But inventing tricks that work some of the time is not the same as showing
discreteness to exist in the real world. As Rosen argues so eloquently, the
realm of maths that works - for which computational tricks based on assuming
discreteness can succeed - is actually an infinitely(!) small space of the
total possible universe of mathematical systems.

A source that more directly tackles the status of Robinson's "solution" is
Morris Kline, Mathematics: The Loss of Certainty (OUP, 1980).

[Arthur]
As someone commented recently, many mathematicians and scientists are
platonists of the literal 'the universe in JUST numbers kind'.

[John McCrone]
Or JUST information these days. Information in the Shannonesque sense of
discrete bits is the ultimate expression of a discrete-ophile ontology of
reality <grin>. But as even Shannon admitted, his was a mathematical
procedure for generating discreteness - another way of approaching infinity.

A bit is defined as the difference that makes a difference. In other words,
information theory is an algorithm which can produce "bits" from what may be
a continuous reality, but which may also ultimately fail to reach that
reality - which is why there is a difference between information and
meaning. Or why Information Theory ought to have been called signalling
theory.

[Arthur]
A language of order, relation, function; differentiation, integration;
field, invariance; inside, outside, boundary, open, closed, kink, knot,
sheaf, cusp; order disorder etc can help to unify the disparate languages
with which the members of this list seem to talk past one another. Head down
to your underlying assumptions if you can find them and see if you are
working form the same ones. If not, you can NEVER reach agreement with the
other party and can only hope to help each other develop the different ideas
you have already.

Of course, in the year 2001, not all of us will agree with such a
foundational perspective, and I have my own middle aged shakiness on this
point. Even in the foundations of mathematics there is some hint of a change
from a Hilbert style axiomatics to a future EXPERIMENTAL 'foundation' to
mathematics more in keeping with the style of the times. Sounds very hip to
me.

[John McCrone]
Godel wrecked Hilbert's dream long ago - and Hilbert's was a last ditch stab
at preserving axiomatics anyway. On the other hand, I have found huge and
unexpected hope in the work of mathematically sophisticated theoretical
biologists such as Rosen, Pattee, Grossberg and others. There is the
possibility of an exciting future indeed.

These are guys who do take a fairly topological approach. Physical reality
is a continuous manifold of "stuff" that then gets constrained though a
succession of informational controls (bottlenecks on the underlying
dynamics) to form complex structures.

And what makes a general theory of consciousness and life possible is that
there are a limited number of basic mathematical entities - what I call
causal objects - which are natural, inevitable, and universal in living and
conscious systems. These natural shapes include agents, networks, and
hierarchies. They also probably include membranes (enclosing surfaces) and
Turing machines ("tape and gate" computing). They also include some fairly
"psychological" notions such as memory, anticipation and learning - and even
probably subjectivity itself.

Much More in the remainder of the article
http://www.btinternet.com/~neuronaut/webtwo_features_infinoverse.htm
http://www.btinternet.com/~neuronaut/webtwo_features_reason.htm
http://www.btinternet.com/~neuronaut/webtwo_articles.html

Quote:
Countless theologians, philosophers, logicians and mathematicians (note
the
order of precedence here) have spun various doctrinal webs about the
matter.
Suffice to say there are different ways of looking at things and there is
no
necessity for these ways to be consistent with each other (remember Kuhn).
Herein lies the advantage of philosophy over logic and mathematics;
tolerance of the inconsistent and the absurd may be considered by the
unprejudiced mind.

There is clearly (hate that word) a difference between (the respectability
of) complex numbers and 'infinite numbers' (your quotes presumably
indicate
disapproval or disbelief) in that the former are completely integrated
into
analysis and the latter have no place there. The similarity I was
referring
to was their historical rejection by orthodoxy at some time or another,
not
their similarity as mathematical constructions. Further, the construction
of
a logico/mathematical entity E1 and of another E2, by means of meaningful
definitions, axioms and theorems lends them equal status from a logical
point of view regardless of whether they fit into existing, orthodox
theories. Here I'm regarding the whole of mathematics as consisting of
more
or less well constructed theories, which it probably isn't. It was this
latter question, of the consistency of mathematics that led to R & Ws
abortive Principia Mathematica.

Now, quite a lot of respectable scientists ask questions like: "is the
cosmos of finite or infinite extent" or "can an electron possess infinite
energy." For such questions to be addressed, some precise meaning needs to
be attached to the word 'infinite'. Since particle physicists and
cosmologists are almost completely dependent on mathematics, one would
expect to find some 'useful' theories about the meaning of infinity there.
Furthermore, if physicists are actually forced to make calculations,
involving 'infinite' quantities, then mathematicians better come up with
something useable, just in case 'reality' does indulge itself in such
fanciful phenomena. From the point of view of an observer, largely
ignorant
of the exalted logical and mathematical theories that might bear upon the
matter, it seems that such theories are non-existent or deficient.

The idea that there is something called 'mathematical sense' is an
intriguing one. That there is such a thing as mathematical ability seems
to
be a well established fact. However, such ability is surely enhanced by
years of study and practice in the mathematical arts. If such study
consists
in adopting existing orthodoxy holus-bolus, it is bound to induce what
might
be called Kuhnian myopia. Such, I think, is the the cause of adverse
reactions to simple statements like; 'infinite numbers can be defined in
such a way that they can be incorporated into ordinary arithmetic.'

It would be a rash person who claims to understand the boundaries between
logic and mathematics. Once upon a time, logicians thought that
mathematicians should bow to their will and
construct everything from first principles (as defined by logicians) using
finely stepped proof structures. I suspect that this programme was never
feasible because attention to such detail would prove so tedious that no
creative work would ever get done. If such strict procedures were ever
used,
it was likely for the purposes of validation and rationalisation after the
event. Otherwise, there would be no room at all for 'mathematical sense'
(intuition). Any enmity between mathematicians and logicians is likely to
be
a struggle over who should make the rules and who should obey them.
Philosophers, of course, know that this prerogative belongs to them alone.

Returning to the question, 'are there such things as infinite numbers and
could there be a theory about them.' The first step, it seems to me, is to
admit that such entities can be defined (successfully or otherwise) and
that
no existing doctrine should stand in the way of this simple step. After
all,
Peano did stoop to defining finite cardinals from first principles, as if
he
thought they did not exist prior to his work.

This leads to the annoying question as to what is meant by saying that
numbers like two 'exist'. If we define them on the basis of a certain type
of set, the regress as to whether abstract sets exist supervenes. From
this
perspective, the existence of finite cardinals is as dubious as that of
infinite ones. The obvious objection is that sets of couples do refer to
actual occurrences in the world (states of affairs for Wittgenstein fans)
whereas infinite numbers or sets have no such 'real' correlates.

Another approach is to say, "no one knows much about the infinite, so I'll
define it in the way that pleases me and ignore what others have said."
This
is convenient, because it saves time on studying the works of other
crackpots. Academics frown on this approach and you have to be a genius to
get away with it.

From a semantic point of view (with a dash of Hegel) one wonders how we
can
know what 'finite' means if we have no idea what the contrary term
'infinite' means. If there is no meaning to be attached to the term
'infinite' then 'finite' seems to be redundant, and should be removed from
the dictionary. But this would alarm mathematicians who rely so much on
the
'infinite', even if they pretend that the never actually touch the stuff
but
only tend to inhale from a distance.

Making use of the dialectic, we can say "that which is infinite is not
finite"; a harmless enough tautology. The next step is to decide whether
the
class of infinite entities is empty or not. Since we could decide either
way, on the basis of ignorance, we can decide that there is at least one
entity which can be said to be infinite. The alternative decision is that
there is a class of finite entities and nothing else exists beyond this
class. Then comes the silly question, "is this class inside itself or
not?'
The more serious question arises, "is this class infinite or finite?" No
answer, came the stern reply.

But all this is obfuscation. If we are have to measure the length of God's
beard we are going to need a big number, much bigger that those old
fashioned naturals. So, why not have a new infinite unit fit for the job.
Hang on though, all this may not be necessary at all, since arithmetic is
independent of measures like feet inches, or God's beard length. The
number
'1' will do just as well as it is. However, this would mean we could give
up
the distinction between the finite and infinite as far as arithmetic is
concerned, as long as we don't try and mix up finite and infinite
measurements at the same time.

So, it seems that ordinary arithmetic will do very well for measure gods
body-parts as long as we don't try and compare them with our own. The
divine
form may be comparable but the dimensions must remain incomparable.

The human mind is never satisfied, it yearns to reach beyond its last
thought, a tendency that leads us to suspect the existence of the
infinite.
This principle of transcendence ought to be enshrined in meta-logic
somewhere, particularly since it underlies that illogical operator '+'.

If only we could say something 'naive', like I + 1 > I, but that damned
madman Cantor has already convinced everybody that Ao + 1 = Ao. Oh well,
that's the end of the matter then.

Tony Thomas























"mitch" <mitchs@rcn.com> wrote in message
news:3FE67CF8.DCDEB562@rcn.com...


Tony Thomas wrote:

To say there are no infinite numbers is like saying there are no
complex
numbers. Such abstractions are mental fictions which may be invented
at
will. If one wishes to define infinite numbers, in a consistent and
meaningful way, then there is no reason they should not be accorded a
similar status to other mental fictions (eg quaternions).


There is a big diffference between "infinite numbers" and quaternions or
complex
numbers.

There is something called a Lindenbaum algebra that can be formed for
any
first-order language on the basis of equivalence under the deductive
calculus.
Lindenbaum algebras are Boolean algebras which, by the Stone
representation
theorem, are associated with compact Hausdorff spaces. Such spaces are
always
associated with at least one almost periodic point.

Thus, every "logic" admits an "existence" outside of its domain.

The designs of philosophers that led to set theory and the
rationalizations for
infinite numbers conflate the checks and balances in mathematical
structure.
The number systems R, C, H, O all relate to each other in ways that
preserve the
geometric relations of conic sections. Q and Z express themselves in R
under
interpretation of a linear order with respect to a geometric line, and
the
embedding of points in a line to orient such an association is
equivalent
to the
embedding of a quadratic field, once again introducing the constraint of
conic
sections on the relations.

The same cannot be said of the naive approach taken to "infinite
numbers."

Worse yet, after thinking about the technical details of this matter I
am
finally turning to Aristotle only to find that much of this unsound
reasoning
can be attributed to people simply ignoring basic statements that have
served to
ground philosophy.

I am beginning to think that Bertrand Russell must have been the biggest
idiot
in the history of philosophy. He chose to promote the ideas of a man
(Frege)
whose own biographers note a lack of preparation in the philosophy
against
which
he was arguing.

The thought that "infinite numbers" are grounded in a mathematical sense
seems
ludicrous given the rivalry between British empiricism and Continental
rationalism that I have seen mentioned in this newsgroup. Moreover, the
more I
look into these matters, the more I find a historical enmity of
philosophical
logicians for mathematicians. There is a great deal of "office
politics"
in the
development of "infinite numbers" that is quite atypical when compared
with
other branches of mathematical inquiry.

:-)

mitch



Tony Thomas
Posted: Tue Dec 23, 2003 11:36 pm
Guest
This raises a great many issues.

One such is whether it is desirable or even possible to agree upon a
collection of fundamental tools of thought
which can serve as the basis for logical, mathematical and general
philosophical enquiry.

Principia mathematica was one such attempt but the demonstration that such
Hilbertian programs must forever be imperfect does not invalidate the
usefulness and desirability of such a collection of fundamental ideas. The
field of logic in general constitutes such an approximate synthesis even if
unintentionally. Mathematics, likewise, constitutes a body of knowledge
whose participants intend or would prefer consistency in all its parts.

The role for the philosopher, if he be neither professional logician nor
mathematician, seems to be excluded on the grounds that he would be unable
to address any meta-logical problems of these disciplines unless he had
mastered them to a high degree. This amounts to saying that the lowly
philosopher would not have at his disposal the mental tools necessary for
understanding whether there was a problem or not, let alone be able to
contribute anything useful.

Standing against this doleful picture is that poor, ugly and possibly smelly
figure who persisted in accosting the passing gentlemen of Athens and
pointing out that what they believed was always open to doubt. At the heart
of the Socratic approach is the premise that human knowledge, however
carefully wrought, is always open to doubt. Sailing between the Scylla of
scepticism and the Charybdis impregnable doctrine remains a necessary art.

Returning to the basement. If a logical or mathematical idea is fundamental,
one might suppose that it would affect the whole structure. Upsetting that
idea or radically altering it could threaten the whole edifice. A
complicating factor is that the meaning of the said fundament might appear
quite different from the penthouse than from the street. So much so, that
the
man in the ivory tower knows very well that the man below can have little
idea of the view from upstairs. Even better, the would-be intruder has no
access to the building at all.

Like all sacred doctrines, the priests and mullahs of mathematics
continually pore over and refine their fundamental ideas, adding nuances in
the light of ever more esoteric theories. The slightest hint of heresy is
dealt with by scorn or excommunication or dire warnings of the damnation.
"The claim of discreteness is a dangerous ontological claim," they cry,
"the idea of discrete particles of force or matter is a convenient fiction."

To the average dullard who has lived in the world for a long time but has
only a hazy idea of atomic physics, such claims sound ridiculous but hard to
refute when coming from someone wearing a mitre decorated with double
integrals and carrying a crooked stick.

He might wonder why the human brain insists on classifying the world with
nouns, to such good effect, if the objects
referred to are not discrete entities. Of course, this separateness might be
just a Kantian delusion obscuring the real, perfect plenum void where all is
perfect homogeneity. He might remember that Democrirtus too thought that
appearances were deceptive and that the familiar world was really composed
of a mass of whirling atoms, rather than a featureless plenum.

There's the rub. The metaphysician who insists on avoiding duality must
either accept that the world has no features whatever, because doctrine
forbids any hint of discreteness, or that the world is, in some sense.
composed of parts. Thanks to the Spider of K, he can convince himself that
phenomenal heterogeneity masks noumenal homogeneity. However, he might
wonder how the demon of separation and difference seems to prevail over the
God of sameness.

But what could such an ignoramus understand of divine scripture, where
everything is other than it seems. Isn't it obvious to anyone with a modicum
of education that Quantum Mechanics does not really deal with sub-atomic
particles such as electrons, quarks and the like. They are just too charming
and strange to be accused of being anything other than mathematical
fictions. Is it not obvious that they are just demons toying with our
Cartesian fancy, deceiving us all into thinking that there is a world at
all. All is incomprehensible spirit, a phantasmagoria, a play of fictional
energy that does not exist.

In the beginning was the word: but even this must go, for is not the word,
the symbol of something, or indeed any symbol at all, discreet, separate,
distinguishable; Brahman come down as Atman. Clearly there can be no self,
no ego, no separate being, because the priests have told us that there is
naught but continuity, forever forbidden to divide itself into separate
spaces or forms. Oh, woe to geometry, topology, that imaginary land of
infinite but separate things. Speak to me not of numbers lest we all be
damned for the heresy of separateness. Let there be no difference anywhere,
so that my eternal mind shall rest in the eternal peace of non-being.

Tony Thomas














"Immortalist" <Reanimater_2000@yahoo.com> wrote in message
news:vuhg6ij633f4ec@corp.supernews.com...
Quote:

"Tony Thomas" <verdigris@iprimus.com.au> wrote in message
news:3fe7aefb_1@news.iprimus.com.au...
In commenting on the topic of 'infinity' competent mathematicians (like
yourself) launch themselves into the stratosphere of doctrine in order
to
escape the jaws of philosophical predators.


What do you think of this neuroscientists stratospheric launch?

10) WHAT IS INFINITY EXCEPT CONTINUITY?

Arthur and a few others have made comments about the mathematical
treatment
of infinity and infinitesimals that only make it still plainer that it is
very important to understand that the claim of discreteness is a dangerous
ontological claim. Many wrong conclusions and intuitions can easily
follow.

An excellent discussion of these matters is to be found in Robert Rosen's
recent Essays on Life Itself (Columbia, 2000). But the brief story is that
the real world is (as far as we can tell) fundamentally continuous - made
of
unbroken stuff. Even the idea of discrete particles of force or matter is
a
convenient fiction (see quantum mechanics). Mathematics is then a human
creation built on the idea of assuming the fiction of discreteness - on
treating reality as if it were discontinuous, breaking it into parts and
relationships that can then be used within computational formula to model
reality with various degrees of accuracy. Troubles then arise because
people
treat the models as the reality. Reality is assumed to be actually
discrete
because the maths seems to be working.

[Arthur]
Nevertheless, I thought I'd reply here just to mention that indeed
infinitesimals have been reintroduced into mathematics in a rigorous way
by
Abraham Robinson starting in the 50's. The field of analysis, and the
calculus, too has been rigorously based on these numbers which do just
what
you expect good infinitesimals to do

[John McCrone]
When mathematics begins to talk about infinity, you know it is attempting
to
grapple with the continuous. The number line is continuous and unbroken. A
point on the number line is a convenient fiction. The philosophically
correct position to take on infinitesimals is the one of limits - the
position of Aristotle and Zeno that infinity and infinitesimals are not
actual, instead they describe a potential, the potential to proceed in
iterative (ie: discrete!) steps without end because the mathematical goal
you are pursuing is continuous and unbroken.

Cantor eventually "tamed" infinity with set theory, simply asserting
infinity to be discrete (and deriving some useful mathematical outcomes
from
this trick). The calculus likewise "tamed" the continuity of motion by
simply asserting the infinitesimal - pretending that a point of
instantaneous velocity could exist by a procedure of iterative steps that
minimised measurement error (note that the trick of calculus works only so
long as the trajectory of change is smooth).

But inventing tricks that work some of the time is not the same as showing
discreteness to exist in the real world. As Rosen argues so eloquently,
the
realm of maths that works - for which computational tricks based on
assuming
discreteness can succeed - is actually an infinitely(!) small space of the
total possible universe of mathematical systems.

A source that more directly tackles the status of Robinson's "solution" is
Morris Kline, Mathematics: The Loss of Certainty (OUP, 1980).

[Arthur]
As someone commented recently, many mathematicians and scientists are
platonists of the literal 'the universe in JUST numbers kind'.

[John McCrone]
Or JUST information these days. Information in the Shannonesque sense of
discrete bits is the ultimate expression of a discrete-ophile ontology of
reality <grin>. But as even Shannon admitted, his was a mathematical
procedure for generating discreteness - another way of approaching
infinity.

A bit is defined as the difference that makes a difference. In other
words,
information theory is an algorithm which can produce "bits" from what may
be
a continuous reality, but which may also ultimately fail to reach that
reality - which is why there is a difference between information and
meaning. Or why Information Theory ought to have been called signalling
theory.

[Arthur]
A language of order, relation, function; differentiation, integration;
field, invariance; inside, outside, boundary, open, closed, kink, knot,
sheaf, cusp; order disorder etc can help to unify the disparate languages
with which the members of this list seem to talk past one another. Head
down
to your underlying assumptions if you can find them and see if you are
working form the same ones. If not, you can NEVER reach agreement with the
other party and can only hope to help each other develop the different
ideas
you have already.

Of course, in the year 2001, not all of us will agree with such a
foundational perspective, and I have my own middle aged shakiness on this
point. Even in the foundations of mathematics there is some hint of a
change
from a Hilbert style axiomatics to a future EXPERIMENTAL 'foundation' to
mathematics more in keeping with the style of the times. Sounds very hip
to
me.

[John McCrone]
Godel wrecked Hilbert's dream long ago - and Hilbert's was a last ditch
stab
at preserving axiomatics anyway. On the other hand, I have found huge and
unexpected hope in the work of mathematically sophisticated theoretical
biologists such as Rosen, Pattee, Grossberg and others. There is the
possibility of an exciting future indeed.

These are guys who do take a fairly topological approach. Physical reality
is a continuous manifold of "stuff" that then gets constrained though a
succession of informational controls (bottlenecks on the underlying
dynamics) to form complex structures.

And what makes a general theory of consciousness and life possible is that
there are a limited number of basic mathematical entities - what I call
causal objects - which are natural, inevitable, and universal in living
and
conscious systems. These natural shapes include agents, networks, and
hierarchies. They also probably include membranes (enclosing surfaces) and
Turing machines ("tape and gate" computing). They also include some fairly
"psychological" notions such as memory, anticipation and learning - and
even
probably subjectivity itself.

Much More in the remainder of the article
http://www.btinternet.com/~neuronaut/webtwo_features_infinoverse.htm
http://www.btinternet.com/~neuronaut/webtwo_features_reason.htm
http://www.btinternet.com/~neuronaut/webtwo_articles.html

Countless theologians, philosophers, logicians and mathematicians (note
the
order of precedence here) have spun various doctrinal webs about the
matter.
Suffice to say there are different ways of looking at things and there
is
no
necessity for these ways to be consistent with each other (remember
Kuhn).
Herein lies the advantage of philosophy over logic and mathematics;
tolerance of the inconsistent and the absurd may be considered by the
unprejudiced mind.

There is clearly (hate that word) a difference between (the
respectability
of) complex numbers and 'infinite numbers' (your quotes presumably
indicate
disapproval or disbelief) in that the former are completely integrated
into
analysis and the latter have no place there. The similarity I was
referring
to was their historical rejection by orthodoxy at some time or another,
not
their similarity as mathematical constructions. Further, the
construction
of
a logico/mathematical entity E1 and of another E2, by means of
meaningful
definitions, axioms and theorems lends them equal status from a logical
point of view regardless of whether they fit into existing, orthodox
theories. Here I'm regarding the whole of mathematics as consisting of
more
or less well constructed theories, which it probably isn't. It was this
latter question, of the consistency of mathematics that led to R & Ws
abortive Principia Mathematica.

Now, quite a lot of respectable scientists ask questions like: "is the
cosmos of finite or infinite extent" or "can an electron possess
infinite
energy." For such questions to be addressed, some precise meaning needs
to
be attached to the word 'infinite'. Since particle physicists and
cosmologists are almost completely dependent on mathematics, one would
expect to find some 'useful' theories about the meaning of infinity
there.
Furthermore, if physicists are actually forced to make calculations,
involving 'infinite' quantities, then mathematicians better come up with
something useable, just in case 'reality' does indulge itself in such
fanciful phenomena. From the point of view of an observer, largely
ignorant
of the exalted logical and mathematical theories that might bear upon
the
matter, it seems that such theories are non-existent or deficient.

The idea that there is something called 'mathematical sense' is an
intriguing one. That there is such a thing as mathematical ability seems
to
be a well established fact. However, such ability is surely enhanced by
years of study and practice in the mathematical arts. If such study
consists
in adopting existing orthodoxy holus-bolus, it is bound to induce what
might
be called Kuhnian myopia. Such, I think, is the the cause of adverse
reactions to simple statements like; 'infinite numbers can be defined in
such a way that they can be incorporated into ordinary arithmetic.'

It would be a rash person who claims to understand the boundaries
between
logic and mathematics. Once upon a time, logicians thought that
mathematicians should bow to their will and
construct everything from first principles (as defined by logicians)
using
finely stepped proof structures. I suspect that this programme was never
feasible because attention to such detail would prove so tedious that no
creative work would ever get done. If such strict procedures were ever
used,
it was likely for the purposes of validation and rationalisation after
the
event. Otherwise, there would be no room at all for 'mathematical sense'
(intuition). Any enmity between mathematicians and logicians is likely
to
be
a struggle over who should make the rules and who should obey them.
Philosophers, of course, know that this prerogative belongs to them
alone.

Returning to the question, 'are there such things as infinite numbers
and
could there be a theory about them.' The first step, it seems to me, is
to
admit that such entities can be defined (successfully or otherwise) and
that
no existing doctrine should stand in the way of this simple step. After
all,
Peano did stoop to defining finite cardinals from first principles, as
if
he
thought they did not exist prior to his work.

This leads to the annoying question as to what is meant by saying that
numbers like two 'exist'. If we define them on the basis of a certain
type
of set, the regress as to whether abstract sets exist supervenes. From
this
perspective, the existence of finite cardinals is as dubious as that of
infinite ones. The obvious objection is that sets of couples do refer to
actual occurrences in the world (states of affairs for Wittgenstein
fans)
whereas infinite numbers or sets have no such 'real' correlates.

Another approach is to say, "no one knows much about the infinite, so
I'll
define it in the way that pleases me and ignore what others have said."
This
is convenient, because it saves time on studying the works of other
crackpots. Academics frown on this approach and you have to be a genius
to
get away with it.

From a semantic point of view (with a dash of Hegel) one wonders how we
can
know what 'finite' means if we have no idea what the contrary term
'infinite' means. If there is no meaning to be attached to the term
'infinite' then 'finite' seems to be redundant, and should be removed
from
the dictionary. But this would alarm mathematicians who rely so much on
the
'infinite', even if they pretend that the never actually touch the stuff
but
only tend to inhale from a distance.

Making use of the dialectic, we can say "that which is infinite is not
finite"; a harmless enough tautology. The next step is to decide whether
the
class of infinite entities is empty or not. Since we could decide either
way, on the basis of ignorance, we can decide that there is at least one
entity which can be said to be infinite. The alternative decision is
that
there is a class of finite entities and nothing else exists beyond this
class. Then comes the silly question, "is this class inside itself or
not?'
The more serious question arises, "is this class infinite or finite?" No
answer, came the stern reply.

But all this is obfuscation. If we are have to measure the length of
God's
beard we are going to need a big number, much bigger that those old
fashioned naturals. So, why not have a new infinite unit fit for the
job.
Hang on though, all this may not be necessary at all, since arithmetic
is
independent of measures like feet inches, or God's beard length. The
number
'1' will do just as well as it is. However, this would mean we could
give
up
the distinction between the finite and infinite as far as arithmetic is
concerned, as long as we don't try and mix up finite and infinite
measurements at the same time.

So, it seems that ordinary arithmetic will do very well for measure gods
body-parts as long as we don't try and compare them with our own. The
divine
form may be comparable but the dimensions must remain incomparable.

The human mind is never satisfied, it yearns to reach beyond its last
thought, a tendency that leads us to suspect the existence of the
infinite.
This principle of transcendence ought to be enshrined in meta-logic
somewhere, particularly since it underlies that illogical operator '+'.

If only we could say something 'naive', like I + 1 > I, but that damned
madman Cantor has already convinced everybody that Ao + 1 = Ao. Oh well,
that's the end of the matter then.

Tony Thomas























"mitch" <mitchs@rcn.com> wrote in message
news:3FE67CF8.DCDEB562@rcn.com...


Tony Thomas wrote:

To say there are no infinite numbers is like saying there are no
complex
numbers. Such abstractions are mental fictions which may be invented
at
will. If one wishes to define infinite numbers, in a consistent and
meaningful way, then there is no reason they should not be accorded
a
similar status to other mental fictions (eg quaternions).


There is a big diffference between "infinite numbers" and quaternions
or
complex
numbers.

There is something called a Lindenbaum algebra that can be formed for
any
first-order language on the basis of equivalence under the deductive
calculus.
Lindenbaum algebras are Boolean algebras which, by the Stone
representation
theorem, are associated with compact Hausdorff spaces. Such spaces
are
always
associated with at least one almost periodic point.

Thus, every "logic" admits an "existence" outside of its domain.

The designs of philosophers that led to set theory and the
rationalizations for
infinite numbers conflate the checks and balances in mathematical
structure.
The number systems R, C, H, O all relate to each other in ways that
preserve the
geometric relations of conic sections. Q and Z express themselves in
R
under
interpretation of a linear order with respect to a geometric line, and
the
embedding of points in a line to orient such an association is
equivalent
to the
embedding of a quadratic field, once again introducing the constraint
of
conic
sections on the relations.

The same cannot be said of the naive approach taken to "infinite
numbers."

Worse yet, after thinking about the technical details of this matter I
am
finally turning to Aristotle only to find that much of this unsound
reasoning
can be attributed to people simply ignoring basic statements that have
served to
ground philosophy.

I am beginning to think that Bertrand Russell must have been the
biggest
idiot
in the history of philosophy. He chose to promote the ideas of a man
(Frege)
whose own biographers note a lack of preparation in the philosophy
against
which
he was arguing.

The thought that "infinite numbers" are grounded in a mathematical
sense
seems
ludicrous given the rivalry between British empiricism and Continental
rationalism that I have seen mentioned in this newsgroup. Moreover,
the
more I
look into these matters, the more I find a historical enmity of
philosophical
logicians for mathematicians. There is a great deal of "office
politics"
in the
development of "infinite numbers" that is quite atypical when compared
with
other branches of mathematical inquiry.

:-)

mitch





mitch
Posted: Wed Dec 24, 2003 2:11 am
Guest
Tony Thomas wrote:

Quote:
In commenting on the topic of 'infinity' competent mathematicians (like
yourself) launch themselves into the stratosphere of doctrine in order to
escape the jaws of philosophical predators.


lol

You are speaking to someone who is more than willing to defend a large cardinal
axiom.

I am also willing to discuss philosophy.

But, I am very sensitive to the fact that belief systems play a role in how
discussions proceed. Ours appear to be at odds. The issue is that I understand
"philosophical predator" as reflecting the very language ability that prompted
Frege to devise a deductive calculus. :-)

Mathematics is not about burdens of proof except in so far as two statements are
shown to be in relation to one another (situational rather than foundational).

I do accept your subsequent clarification on the matter. I have no objection to
writing down axioms and launching a deductive calculus to see what comes out.
Let the logicians play. But, no one has ever demonstrated a representation for
real spaces to be possible in a set theory. So forgive me if I do not accept
their take on things.

My consternation over these issues has finally led me to looking at Aristotle.
I note that he uses the term "paronymous" as one of the three ways by which
words can relate to objects. So, logicians relate to logic and mathematicians
relate to mathematics. Too bad Russell couldn't respect that.

But, then, "Nature does nothing in vain."

:-)

mitch
 
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