Main Page | Report this Page
 
   
Science Forum Index  »  Logic Forum  »  Solved the Modal logic S3 Riddle...
Page 1 of 1    
Author Message
translogi...
Posted: Sat May 24, 2008 8:40 am
Guest
Hello

Think I have solved the S3 riddle

the riddle is in Modal logic S3 is

"
[][](p -> p) v <><>q is a theorem
but
[][](p -> p) nor
<><>q
is a theorem
"

The solution I came to is that the theorem is an Law of the excluded
middle theorem

starting with

A v ~A
taking A to be [][]T

(T being any tautaulogy)

We get
[][]T v ~[][] T

converting ~[][] to <><>~
we get
[][]T v <><>~T

because every tautiology is equivalent to any (other or the same)
tautology we can replace the first one by p ->p and the second one by
q v -q

we get
[][](p->p) v <><>~(q v ~q)

~(q v ~q) is equivalent to ~q & q
we get
[][](p->p) v <><>(~q & q)

<><>(~q & q) implies <><>q
so we get

[][](p->p) v <><>q

QED

Is this proof correct?
translogi...
Posted: Fri May 30, 2008 6:53 am
Guest
On May 28, 12:55 am, Ken Pledger <ken.pled... at (no spam) mcs.vuw.ac.nz> wrote:
Quote:
In article
763503bd-a2dc-41a2-87e9-6cae2a3cb... at (no spam) z66g2000hsc.googlegroups.com>,

 translogi <wilem... at (no spam) googlemail.com> wrote:
....
the riddle is in Modal logic S3 is

"
[][](p -> p) v <><>q is a theorem
but
[][](p -> p) nor
 <><>q
is a theorem
"

      I'm not sure why you call it a "riddle".  It shows why S3 (like
S1, S2 and other systems) is often called "unreasonable" in the sense of
Hallden.







The solution I came to is that the theorem is an Law of the excluded
middle theorem

starting with

A v ~A
taking A to be [][]T

(T being any tautaulogy)

We get
[][]T v ~[][] T

converting ~[][] to <><>~
we get
 [][]T v <><>~T

because every tautiology is equivalent to any (other or the same)
tautology we can replace the first one by p ->p and the second one by
q v -q

we get
[][](p->p) v <><>~(q v ~q)

~(q v ~q) is equivalent to ~q & q
we get
[][](p->p) v <><>(~q & q)

(~q & q) implies <><>q
so we get

[][](p->p) v <><>q

 QED

Is this proof correct?

      Yes, even in S1.  It's pretty similar to the proof in Hughes &
Cresswell's first book "An Introduction to Modal Logic" pp. 268-9.  Have
you seen some essentially different proof somewhere?

            Ken Pledger.- Hide quoted text -

- Show quoted text -

You are right

It shows the proof.
(I remember reading the book but i thought it made only some remarks
about it, not showing the proof)

Strange that Hallden calls it "unreasonable" it is just an
application of the law of the excluded middle.

Makes me wonder what happens if the underlying PC logic is
intuitionistic?.
I guess then it doesn't hold anymore.
 
Page 1 of 1       All times are GMT - 5 Hours
The time now is Sun Nov 23, 2008 11:43 am