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Author Message
Daniel Alayon-Solarz
Posted: Thu Mar 08, 2007 8:38 pm
Guest
Hi,

After being able to factorize the angular part of the laplacian I have
noted that this allows to find solutions to the following equation:

(-\delta + v) g = 0

where v = n(n+1)/r^2, n is an integer.

Clearly, r^n is a solution for this equation. The more general
solutions I have found are of the form: r^n h(\theta, \phi). Some
anomalies arise; h has a singularity (i.e goes to infinity) in at
least one point of the sphere. This means that r^n h is singular in at
least one half-line.

My question, then, is how to interpret this equation in physical
terms?

Thanks
Daniel Alayon-Solarz
 
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