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Prat
Posted: Tue Jan 09, 2007 4:46 pm
Guest
Hello,
I am a novice in Stat/Probability.
My question is:
Consider a random variable z following an arbitrary probability
distribution for which we know the mean mu and variance s^2

Quote:
From Chebychex, we know that, for k >0,

P(z-mu >= t) <= s^2 / (s^2 + t^2)
This is equivalent to:
1 - P(z-mu < t) <= s^2 / (s^2 + t^2),
or
1 - s^2 / (s^2 + t^2) <= P(z-mu < t) ,
Is is then correct to say that?
1 - s^2 / (s^2 + t^2) <= P(z-mu > t)


Could you please give me a help on this?

Pratim
 
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