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Science Forum Index » Languages Forum » palatalization in different accents
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| Tuvok Malawi |
 Posted: Wed Jan 14, 2004 8:46 am |
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Russian sounds different from other Slav languages because of
palatalization. I would like to know if palatalization increases in
Slav languages from west to east, or if it is something all eastern
slav languages have in equal measure, Ukranians and Belorussians too.
Palatalization, if I am correct, is when a 'y' sound is added after
consonants.
Many English accents also have palatalization. The Geordie, Northern
Ireland, royal family, Jamaican and American accents have it.
Why is there a tendency for palatalization to occur in languages and
accents? I find it extremely irritating, especially when Americans say
'eeyand' instead of 'and'. But then they also say 'Toosday' instead of
'Tuesday'. What's that all about?
Tuvok Malawi. |
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| Miguel Carrasquer |
| Posted: Wed Jan 14, 2004 9:51 am |
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On 14 Jan 2004 05:46:20 -0800, fornixbabylonica@yahoo.com (Tuvok Malawi)
wrote:
Quote: Russian sounds different from other Slav languages because of
palatalization. I would like to know if palatalization increases in
Slav languages from west to east, or if it is something all eastern
slav languages have in equal measure, Ukranians and Belorussians too.
It's more of a north-south thing. Polish, Belorussian and Russian have
maintained more palatalization than Czech, Slovak, Ukrainian or South
Slavic.
=======================
Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
mcv@wxs.nl |
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| Peter T. Daniels |
| Posted: Wed Jan 14, 2004 12:55 pm |
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Miguel Carrasquer wrote:
Quote:
On 14 Jan 2004 05:46:20 -0800, fornixbabylonica@yahoo.com (Tuvok Malawi)
wrote:
Russian sounds different from other Slav languages because of
palatalization. I would like to know if palatalization increases in
Slav languages from west to east, or if it is something all eastern
slav languages have in equal measure, Ukranians and Belorussians too.
It's more of a north-south thing. Polish, Belorussian and Russian have
maintained more palatalization than Czech, Slovak, Ukrainian or South
Slavic.
Belarus wants us to spell it "Belarusian," and if we go along with
"Beijing" and "Mumbai," we ought to accommodate them, too. I draw the
line at "Myanmar," though.
--
Peter T. Daniels grammatim@att.net |
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| Radovan Garabik |
| Posted: Fri Jan 16, 2004 3:28 am |
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Miguel Carrasquer <mcv@wxs.nl> wrote:
Quote: On 14 Jan 2004 05:46:20 -0800, fornixbabylonica@yahoo.com (Tuvok Malawi)
wrote:
Russian sounds different from other Slav languages because of
palatalization. I would like to know if palatalization increases in
Slav languages from west to east, or if it is something all eastern
slav languages have in equal measure, Ukranians and Belorussians too.
It's more of a north-south thing. Polish, Belorussian and Russian have
maintained more palatalization than Czech, Slovak, Ukrainian or South
Slavic.
and there are rather big regional differences in slovakia, western
dialects use much less palatalization than central and eastern ones,
whike "standard" slovak is somewhere between.
--
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| Radovan Garabík http://melkor.dnp.fmph.uniba.sk/~garabik/ |
| __..--^^^--..__ garabik @ kassiopeia.juls.savba.sk |
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| Larry Trask |
| Posted: Fri Jan 16, 2004 12:36 pm |
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fornixbabylonica@yahoo.com (Tuvok Malawi) wrote in message news:<5ef93679.0401140546.3e540f5c@posting.google.com>...
Quote: Palatalization, if I am correct, is when a 'y' sound is added after
consonants.
This is one variety of palatalization, but there are others.
Quote: Many English accents also have palatalization. The Geordie, Northern
Ireland, royal family, Jamaican and American accents have it.
It's news to me that American accents palatalize more than other
accents. What have you got in mind?
Anyway, *all* accents of English exhibit palatalization. You just
find me a native speaker who pronounces 'car key' without palatalizing
the second /k/.
Quote: Why is there a tendency for palatalization to occur in languages and
accents?
Palatalization of consonants is extremely natural next to high front
("palatal") vowels and glides. This is a kind of assimilation.
Quote: I find it extremely irritating, especially when Americans say
'eeyand' instead of 'and'.
But this is not palatalization. It's vowel raising, possibly
accompanied by diphthongization.
And why should you find it irritating when people speak their mother
tongue?
Quote: But then they also say 'Toosday' instead of
'Tuesday'. What's that all about?
The reduction of /ju:/ to /u:/ is a frequent process in the history of
English. It has occurred in most accents after /s/,/l/ and /r/, as in
'suit', 'lute' and 'rue'. It has occurred after all coronals in many
accents of North America, and everywhere in some accents of East
Anglia. East Anglians have 'moozik' for 'music', and so on.
Larry Trask
larryt@sussex.ac.uk |
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| Brian M. Scott |
| Posted: Fri Jan 16, 2004 3:08 pm |
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On 16 Jan 2004 09:36:56 -0800 larryt@sussex.ac.uk (Larry
Trask) wrote in
<news:48c7f19.0401160936.54e1f862@posting.google.com> in
sci.lang:
[...]
Quote: Anyway, *all* accents of English exhibit palatalization. You just
find me a native speaker who pronounces 'car key' without palatalizing
the second /k/.
Aren't there speakers for whom /i:/ is something like [@j]?
That oughtn't to palatalize the second /k/, or at least not
much.
[...]
Brian |
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| Tuvok Malawi |
| Posted: Mon Jan 26, 2004 8:16 am |
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Quote: Many English accents also have palatalization. The Geordie, Northern
Ireland, royal family, Jamaican and American accents have it.
It's news to me that American accents palatalize more than other
accents. What have you got in mind?
I heard an American pronounce the word 'man' as 'myan'. |
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