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Charles Braverman
Posted: Thu Dec 28, 2006 7:12 pm
Guest
Dr. Stacy,

In a recent discussion regarding floaters (which I unfortunately deleted), I
believe you stated that floaters would have to be VERY bad before a
vitrectomy might be justified.

I have what I consider to be very bad floaters for the past 7 years, and
have been wrestling with that question over that time.

What criteria does one use to determine whether to seek a vitrectomy? In my
case, I have large globs of "mud" that obscure a large portion of my vision.
Reading is very difficult, for example, not only because so much of a line
of print is obscured, but because the contrast between the print and
background is poor. It is also not an exaggeration to say that the globs
torment me almost all of the time and seem to cause persistent eye strain
and tearing. Yet I have something close to 20/20 on an eye chart and no eye
disease according to recent dilated eye exams. What are your thoughts as to
what criteria justify vitrectomy?

Thank you for your comments.

I would also be interested in any additional opinions from other readers.

Charles
Dan Abel
Posted: Thu Dec 28, 2006 7:58 pm
Guest
In article <CpKdnaMZ367U0gnYnZ2dnUVZ_oernZ2d@comcast.com>,
"Charles Braverman" <braversir@aol.com> wrote:


Quote:
In a recent discussion regarding floaters (which I unfortunately deleted), I
believe you stated that floaters would have to be VERY bad before a
vitrectomy might be justified.


Google is your friend.



Quote:
and tearing. Yet I have something close to 20/20 on an eye chart and no eye
disease according to recent dilated eye exams. What are your thoughts as to
what criteria justify vitrectomy?

20/20 on the eye chart is a first cut. It isn't the final answer.


Quote:
I would also be interested in any additional opinions from other readers.


What does your doctor advise?

ObOT: I had a vitrectomy about a year ago. My doctor said that as a
side effect, I would lose the floaters.
Jane
Posted: Thu Dec 28, 2006 8:12 pm
Guest
Charles, if I were in your situation, I'd be setting up a pre-surgery
consultation with my retinal surgeon rather than seeking opinions on
the internet. I had a vitrectomy about a year ago to remove a macular
pucker. The worst consequence of the surgery was the development of a
cataract in the surgical eye. (I've read that it's the result of the
lens' exposure to oxygen.) Unless you are at high risk for retinal
detachment, I believe that the a vitrectomy is quite safe if done by a
competent retinal surgeon. And with the new 25-gauge "sutureless"
equipment, recovery is very rapid. One surgeon wrote that the day
after the vitrectomy, it's frequently difficult to tell which of the
patient's eyes had the surgery.

Best of luck!
William Stacy
Posted: Thu Dec 28, 2006 10:24 pm
Guest
Good advice, but since he's asking, I'll venture that he might be a
candidate for it, especially if he is over age 50, since the subsequent
cataract surgery that is certain to follow if he hasn't yet had it is
sort of a blessing in disguise. I'll bet he's 20/20 only part of the
time, and when the goop is in the way he may drop to worse than 20/100
or so in the affected eye.

w.stacy, o.d.

Jane wrote:

Quote:
Charles, if I were in your situation, I'd be setting up a pre-surgery
consultation with my retinal surgeon rather than seeking opinions on
the internet. I had a vitrectomy about a year ago to remove a macular
pucker. The worst consequence of the surgery was the development of a
cataract in the surgical eye. (I've read that it's the result of the
lens' exposure to oxygen.) Unless you are at high risk for retinal
detachment, I believe that the a vitrectomy is quite safe if done by a
competent retinal surgeon. And with the new 25-gauge "sutureless"
equipment, recovery is very rapid. One surgeon wrote that the day
after the vitrectomy, it's frequently difficult to tell which of the
patient's eyes had the surgery.

Best of luck!


Anon E. Muss
Posted: Fri Dec 29, 2006 12:07 pm
Guest
On Thu, 28 Dec 2006 15:12:11 -0800, "Charles Braverman"
<braversir@aol.com> wrote:

Quote:
Dr. Stacy,

In a recent discussion regarding floaters (which I unfortunately deleted), I
believe you stated that floaters would have to be VERY bad before a
vitrectomy might be justified.

I have what I consider to be very bad floaters for the past 7 years, and
have been wrestling with that question over that time.

What criteria does one use to determine whether to seek a vitrectomy? In my
case, I have large globs of "mud" that obscure a large portion of my vision.
Reading is very difficult, for example, not only because so much of a line
of print is obscured, but because the contrast between the print and
background is poor. It is also not an exaggeration to say that the globs
torment me almost all of the time and seem to cause persistent eye strain
and tearing. Yet I have something close to 20/20 on an eye chart and no eye
disease according to recent dilated eye exams. What are your thoughts as to
what criteria justify vitrectomy?

Thank you for your comments.

I would also be interested in any additional opinions from other readers.

First of all, realize a vitrectomy is not "minor surgery".

Next, realize that anytime the eye gets "cracked open" there is real
risk of a microbial infection inside the eye (i.e., endophthalmitis).

I have never referred a patient to a retinal surgeon for an evaluation
for vitrectomy to get rid of floaters. However, my criteria for a
"20/20 patient" would be the patient would to have to be absolutely
miserable and thoroughly understand the risks/benefits of the
procedure. From your description (i.e., "torment") above, you may be
better off being prescribed an antidepressant than a vitrectomy.

And although some others have said recovery from a vitrectomy is
minimal, there are other times after a vitrectomy that your eye feels
like someone played pinball with it.
Dan Abel
Posted: Fri Dec 29, 2006 12:56 pm
Guest
In article <1ueap2pul8j9rcjp18kma2vpqeu76jd4dk@4ax.com>,
Anon E. Muss <anonymous@example.org> wrote:

Quote:
On Thu, 28 Dec 2006 15:12:11 -0800, "Charles Braverman"
braversir@aol.com> wrote:

I would also be interested in any additional opinions from other readers.

First of all, realize a vitrectomy is not "minor surgery".

Next, realize that anytime the eye gets "cracked open" there is real
risk of a microbial infection inside the eye (i.e., endophthalmitis).

I have never referred a patient to a retinal surgeon for an evaluation
for vitrectomy to get rid of floaters. However, my criteria for a
"20/20 patient" would be the patient would to have to be absolutely
miserable and thoroughly understand the risks/benefits of the
procedure. From your description (i.e., "torment") above, you may be
better off being prescribed an antidepressant than a vitrectomy.

And although some others have said recovery from a vitrectomy is
minimal, there are other times after a vitrectomy that your eye feels
like someone played pinball with it.

Mine went quite well. However, I was on restriction for two weeks (no
lifting or bending over). Since I had already given notice at work, and
had planned to spend the next week cleaning out my office, this was a
problem. I talked to my boss and extended my leaving another two weeks.
This was a good thing, since I had over a hundred days of sick leave, so
I spent two weeks at home at full pay.
Jane
Posted: Fri Dec 29, 2006 2:56 pm
Guest
My vitrectomy was done with the older 20-gauge equipment, which
required sutures. One day post-op my eye was practically swollen shut
and bright red. I looked terrible, although it wasn't painful. I
later developed a severe suture reaction, which was reportedly related
to the (mis)placement of the sutures (put in by a resident who--in my
opinion--didn't know what he was doing.) This left an unsightly red
mound on the white of my eye that lasted for weeks.

But happily, surgery with the newer 25-gauge "sutureless" equipment
inflicts no such torture on the patient. I believe the surgery time is
quicker, and recovery is reported to be faster and painless. I believe
that Charles has a lot to gain from the procedure and should certainly
schedule a consultation with the best retinal surgeon in his area.
(This does not require a referral from an optometrist.)

I haven't kept up with my reading in the area of retinal surgery.
However, I do know that just a few years ago a vitrectomy was not done
to remove a macular pucker until vision was worse than 20/60. Today,
with better equipment and technique, some surgeons will operate on a
patient with 20/20 vision if the distortion from the pucker is
bothersome. I also believe that vitrectomies for floaters are
performed more frequently today than in the recent past.
William Stacy
Posted: Fri Dec 29, 2006 3:50 pm
Guest
I think the chance of endophthalmitis is pretty small, given modern day
procedures and antibiotics. And I think that "cracked" is a poor choice
of words to use with someone who is not familiar with the procedure,
where 3 very small holes are cut in the eye
for the instrumentation. It is minor in that the patient is usually not
under deep anesthesia, and intubation of the trachea is usually not
needed. I think vitrectomies for major vitreous opacities is becoming
more common, as it is quite successful. This person should indeed
consult a vitreous surgeon before consulting a psychiatrist.

w.stacy, o.d.



Anon E. Muss wrote:

Quote:
On Thu, 28 Dec 2006 15:12:11 -0800, "Charles Braverman"
braversir@aol.com> wrote:



Dr. Stacy,

In a recent discussion regarding floaters (which I unfortunately deleted), I
believe you stated that floaters would have to be VERY bad before a
vitrectomy might be justified.

I have what I consider to be very bad floaters for the past 7 years, and
have been wrestling with that question over that time.

What criteria does one use to determine whether to seek a vitrectomy? In my
case, I have large globs of "mud" that obscure a large portion of my vision.
Reading is very difficult, for example, not only because so much of a line
of print is obscured, but because the contrast between the print and
background is poor. It is also not an exaggeration to say that the globs
torment me almost all of the time and seem to cause persistent eye strain
and tearing. Yet I have something close to 20/20 on an eye chart and no eye
disease according to recent dilated eye exams. What are your thoughts as to
what criteria justify vitrectomy?

Thank you for your comments.

I would also be interested in any additional opinions from other readers.



First of all, realize a vitrectomy is not "minor surgery".

Next, realize that anytime the eye gets "cracked open" there is real
risk of a microbial infection inside the eye (i.e., endophthalmitis).

I have never referred a patient to a retinal surgeon for an evaluation
for vitrectomy to get rid of floaters. However, my criteria for a
"20/20 patient" would be the patient would to have to be absolutely
miserable and thoroughly understand the risks/benefits of the
procedure. From your description (i.e., "torment") above, you may be
better off being prescribed an antidepressant than a vitrectomy.

And although some others have said recovery from a vitrectomy is
minimal, there are other times after a vitrectomy that your eye feels
like someone played pinball with it.

Anon E. Muss
Posted: Fri Dec 29, 2006 5:58 pm
Guest
On Fri, 29 Dec 2006 19:50:33 GMT, William Stacy <wstacy@obase.net>
wrote:

Quote:
And I think that "cracked" is a poor choice of words to use with
someone who is not familiar with the procedure, where 3 very small
holes are cut in the eye for the instrumentation.

The euphemsm was used to make the point was that vitrectomy is
*intraocular* surgery, like cataract surgery or refractive lensectomy,
not extraocular surgery like LASIK or PRK.

When an entry point into the eye is made -- even for transconjuctival
sutureless 25-gauge pars plana vitrectomy (PPV) -- new sets of risks
are involved.

And don't even ask what would happen if a pars plana approach fails
and they perform "Open Sky" vitrectomy.

Quote:
I think vitrectomies for major vitreous opacities is becoming more
common, as it is quite successful.

I think it is likely there is a very good reason his ECPs apparently
hasn't referred him to a retinal surgeon for a vitrectomy eval after 7
years of "very bad floaters".

However, if only for his mental health, I would obtain vitreo-retinal
consultation for this gentleman.
Jane
Posted: Fri Dec 29, 2006 8:19 pm
Guest
According to a June '06 article on emedicine.com, postoperative
endophthalmitis is a rare complication of intraocular surgery. Data
from Bascom Palmer from '84 to '94 show that only 0.05% of patients
developed endophthalmitis after pars plana vitrectomy. (The rate was
0.08% for patients undergoing cataract extraction.)

Even with the older 20-gauge equipment, having a vitrectomy is not a
painful ordeal. My surgery was done at a teaching hospital with local
anesthesia alone. (I opted to skip the sedation.) I experienced no
pain during the surgery and was actually able to see the instruments in
my eye and follow the action. (A fascinating and hopefully
once-in-a-lifetime experience.) After the surgery (with one eye
patched), I had lunch and then walked over to the local multiplex,
where I stayed for a double feature. My vision improved from 20/50 to
20/20 during the weeks that followed.

You guys really perform a valuable service for us nonprofessionals by
posting info on this web site. But I really disagree with you in this
case, Anon E. Muss, and your comment about antidepressant medication is
a little offensive. Have some empathy--how would you feel living your
life with the types of problems that Charles has been experiencing?
Anon E. Muss
Posted: Fri Dec 29, 2006 8:50 pm
Guest
On 29 Dec 2006 16:19:34 -0800, "Jane" <clinton6699@hotmail.com> wrote:

Quote:
But I really disagree with you in this case, Anon E. Muss, and your
comment about antidepressant medication is a little offensive.

The OP wrote, quote:

"I have what I consider to be very bad floaters for the past 7
years"

"It is also not an exaggeration to say that the globs
torment me almost all of the time and seem to cause persistent
eye strain and tearing"

It is not unreasonable to recommend for someone who has been tormented
almost all the time for the past 7 years for whatever reason to
undergo a psychiatric evaluation.

Even more so when the objective findings (i.e., 20/20 vision with no
eye pathology) do not concur with his subjective complaints (i.e.,
torment).
William Stacy
Posted: Fri Dec 29, 2006 9:32 pm
Guest
20/20 is a subjective finding, not an objective one. And floaters
notoriously cause 20/20 vision to drop to 20/100 or worse as the floater
passes over the macula.

w.stacy, o.d.

Anon E. Muss wrote:

Quote:
Even more so when the objective findings (i.e., 20/20 vision with no
eye pathology) do not concur with his subjective complaints (i.e.,
torment).

William Stacy
Posted: Fri Dec 29, 2006 9:34 pm
Guest
I should rephrase that: "large floaters notoriously CAN cause 20/20
vision to drop to 20/100 or worse as the..."

William Stacy wrote:

Quote:
20/20 is a subjective finding, not an objective one. And floaters
notoriously cause 20/20 vision to drop to 20/100 or worse as the
floater passes over the macula.
w.stacy, o.d.

Anon E. Muss wrote:

Even more so when the objective findings (i.e., 20/20 vision with no
eye pathology) do not concur with his subjective complaints (i.e.,
torment).

Anon E. Muss
Posted: Sat Dec 30, 2006 12:25 am
Guest
On Sat, 30 Dec 2006 01:32:50 GMT, William Stacy <wstacy@obase.net>
wrote:

Quote:
20/20 is a subjective finding, not an objective one.

Quick answer: In the standard SOAP format for medical records, visual
acuity is recorded in the "O" section for (O)bjective.

Longer answer: When a patient's visual acuity is properly tested
using a wallchart with a patient who is being honest and giving proper
effort, I consider that to be an objective record of his visual acuity
unless proven otherwise.

No, it's NOT *purely* an objective test of visual function like a
visual evoked potential (VEP), optokinetic response (OKN), functional
magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) or a pattern electroretinogram
(pERG). Yes, people can lie, not give good effort, can be hysterical,
malinger or have otherwise non-physiologic loss of visual acuity.

But performed properly with a patient who is honestly trying and
giving his best effort, it is, in my book, an objective test of his
visual function. It should be measurable, repeatable and consistent.
It's part of the art of being a doctor that allows one, generally, to
determine whether to believe in the objectivity of the test results.

When someone says they can read those 20/20 letters, but they are
"fuzzy", "dim", "clear", etc., then that is a subjective response.

In the same way, I consider a confrontation visual field that clearly
demonstrates a total homonymous hemianopia to be essentially
objective. And whether it is performed by confrontations, a tangent
screen, kinetically via Goldmann perimeter, a Matrix FDT or automated
via an Octopus 101, it's still gonna be there. The exact extent will
vary from test to test and is influenced by a person's subjectivity,
but an person educated in interpreting visual fields will clearly be
able to see it's there each and every time.

I consider extraocular motilities to be objective even though people
can fake those too.

Maybe this will help:

I consider anything which is a "sign" to be "objective" even if it
requires some sort of patient response or interpretation: Loss or
presence of normal snellen visual acuity, clear cut visual field
defects (e.g., homonymous hemianopia), restriction on extraocular
motilities, abnormal color vision plate test result, cover/uncover
test results, acquired torsional nystagmus, absence of stereoacuity,
positive photostress test, exophthalmometry, clear cut "red cap
desaturation test"/afferent pupillary defect.

I consider anything which is a "symptom" or complaint to be
"subjective": Vision is clear/blurry, can't see off to one side,
can't move my eyes to the right, hard to tell difference between navy
blue and purple socks, eyes cross, vision shakes, can't thread a
needle, can't see for a long time after car headlights blast me at
night, eyes bug out, colors/lights seem dim out of my one eye.

P.S. Got a pachymeter about a month ago. Smile
William Stacy
Posted: Sat Dec 30, 2006 4:03 pm
Guest
Anon E. Muss wrote:

Quote:
On Sat, 30 Dec 2006 01:32:50 GMT, William Stacy <wstacy@obase.net
wrote:


20/20 is a subjective finding, not an objective one.


Quick answer: In the standard SOAP format for medical records, visual
acuity is recorded in the "O" section for (O)bjective.

Once again I disagree with the "standard" then. Acuities and
*subjective* refraction data belong together in the SUBJECTIVE area.
Retinoscopy and auto-refractions belong in the OBJECTIVE area.

Quote:

Longer answer: When a patient's visual acuity is properly tested
using a wallchart with a patient who is being honest and giving proper
effort, I consider that to be an objective record of his visual acuity
unless proven otherwise.

But you cannot determine the degree of "honest and proper effort".
That's why it's so variable and subjective.

Quote:

No, it's NOT *purely* an objective test of visual function like a
visual evoked potential (VEP), optokinetic response (OKN), functional
magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) or a pattern electroretinogram
(pERG). Yes, people can lie, not give good effort, can be hysterical,
malinger or have otherwise non-physiologic loss of visual acuity.

Nor can you ALWAYS tell if they are hysterical or malingering.
Quote:


In the same way, I consider a confrontation visual field that clearly
demonstrates a total homonymous hemianopia to be essentially
objective. And whether it is performed by confrontations, a tangent
screen, kinetically via Goldmann perimeter, a Matrix FDT or automated
via an Octopus 101, it's still gonna be there. The exact extent will
vary from test to test and is influenced by a person's subjectivity,
but an person educated in interpreting visual fields will clearly be
able to see it's there each and every time.


I also put these in the subjective realm.

Quote:

I consider extraocular motilities to be objective even though people
can fake those too.

Fake a strabismus? Or more important, fake orthophoria when the patient
is a strab? I think not. But obviously these are objective, as we are
making direct OBSERVATIONS by definition. OTOH, things like phorias and
fixation disparity measurements are just as obviously subjective items.

Quote:

Maybe this will help:

I consider anything which is a "sign" to be "objective" even if it
requires some sort of patient response or interpretation: Loss or
presence of normal snellen visual acuity, clear cut visual field
defects (e.g., homonymous hemianopia), restriction on extraocular
motilities, abnormal color vision plate test result, cover/uncover
test results, acquired torsional nystagmus, absence of stereoacuity,
positive photostress test, exophthalmometry, clear cut "red cap
desaturation test"/afferent pupillary defect.

Some of those are signs, some are symptoms. You're lumping them
together, I think unnecessarily and confusingly.

Quote:

I consider anything which is a "symptom" or complaint to be
"subjective": Vision is clear/blurry, can't see off to one side,
can't move my eyes to the right, hard to tell difference between navy
blue and purple socks, eyes cross, vision shakes, can't thread a
needle, can't see for a long time after car headlights blast me at
night, eyes bug out, colors/lights seem dim out of my one eye.

Agreed with those, if reported by the patient and not observable (eyes
bug out should easily be observable as exophthalmos or proptosis).

Quote:

P.S. Got a pachymeter about a month ago. Smile

A very good objective test, don't you think? I'll bet you're using it
more than you used to "order it" from your glaucoma guy? I had a nice
exchange with a lecturer at the Monterey Symposium in which he asked for
a show of hands as to who was "modifying goldmann readings" by the
pachymeter. I was about the only one to raise my hand. He challenged
me and I said I do it in my head, not on paper. Helps me get a feel of
what's going on. He then explained patiently that my correction tables
are not all that accurate. I patiently explained to him that in most
aspects of medicine even variable or imperfect corrections are better
than no corrections at all. Love to make those guys squirm. He allowed
that it was a good point.

w.stacy, o.d.
 
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