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Leroy Quet
Posted: Fri Dec 19, 2003 9:57 pm
Guest
Let f be any real -> real integrable function which is strictly
monotonically increasing, f(0) = 0 and f(1) = 1, and

where integral{0 to 1} f(x) dx = 1/2.


Let g be the inverse of f, f(g(x)) = x for each x from 0 to 1.


What f(x)('s) has the minimum, and which the maximum, for


integral{0 to 1} f(x)*g(x) dx ??


Actually, the max is easy.

f(x) = x = g(x) works,

and gets the integral's value = to 1/3.
;)

thanks,
Leroy Quet
Rob Johnson
Posted: Sat Dec 20, 2003 2:30 am
Guest
In article <b4be2fdf.0312191857.12869902@posting.google.com>,
qqquet@mindspring.com (Leroy Quet) wrote:
Quote:
Let f be any real -> real integrable function which is strictly
monotonically increasing, f(0) = 0 and f(1) = 1, and

where integral{0 to 1} f(x) dx = 1/2.


Let g be the inverse of f, f(g(x)) = x for each x from 0 to 1.


What f(x)('s) has the minimum, and which the maximum, for


integral{0 to 1} f(x)*g(x) dx ??


Actually, the max is easy.

f(x) = x = g(x) works,

and gets the integral's value = to 1/3.

How do we know this is the maximum? Use the calculus of variations.

Let Df be a variation of f. To find the corresponding variation of g,
consider f(g(x)) = x. The variation of a composition of two functions
is given by D(f(g(x))) = (Df)(g(x)) + f'(g(x))Dg(x). Since D(f(g(x)))
is 0, we get that Dg(x) = -(Df)(g(x))/f'(g(x)).

Now to find a critical value of

|\1
| f(x) g(x) dx [1]
\| 0

we must have that the variation is 0:

0

|\1 |\1
= | Df(x) g(x) dx + | f(x) Dg(x) dx
\| 0 \| 0

|\1 |\1
= | Df(x) g(x) dx - | f(x) (Df)(g(x))/f'(g(x)) dx
\| 0 \| 0

|\1 |\1
= | Df(x) g(x) dx - | f(f(x)) Df(x) dx [2]
\| 0 \| 0

The last step follows from the substitution x -> f(x).

For [2] to be 0 for all variations of f, we must have g(x) = f(f(x)),
which means f(f(f(x))) = x. f is strictly monotonically increasing, so
if f(x) > x for any x then f(f(f(x))) > x; likewise for f(x) < x. Thus,
f(x) = x for all x in [0,1].

As for the minimum, the infimum of the integral is 0, but that cannot be
realized within the restrictions given. One family of functions which
tends to this limit is f_n(x) = x^n, for which [1] < 1/(n+1).

Rob Johnson <rob@trash.whim.org>
take out the trash before replying
Rob Johnson
Posted: Sat Dec 20, 2003 4:00 pm
Guest
In article <20031220.023124@whim.org>,
rob@trash.whim.org (Rob Johnson) wrote:
Quote:
In article <b4be2fdf.0312191857.12869902@posting.google.com>,
qqquet@mindspring.com (Leroy Quet) wrote:
Let f be any real -> real integrable function which is strictly
monotonically increasing, f(0) = 0 and f(1) = 1, and

where integral{0 to 1} f(x) dx = 1/2.


Let g be the inverse of f, f(g(x)) = x for each x from 0 to 1.


What f(x)('s) has the minimum, and which the maximum, for


integral{0 to 1} f(x)*g(x) dx ??


Actually, the max is easy.

f(x) = x = g(x) works,

and gets the integral's value = to 1/3.

How do we know this is the maximum? Use the calculus of variations.

Let Df be a variation of f. To find the corresponding variation of g,
consider f(g(x)) = x. The variation of a composition of two functions
is given by D(f(g(x))) = (Df)(g(x)) + f'(g(x))Dg(x). Since D(f(g(x)))
is 0, we get that Dg(x) = -(Df)(g(x))/f'(g(x)).

Now to find a critical value of

|\1
| f(x) g(x) dx [1]
\| 0

we must have that the variation is 0:

0

|\1 |\1
= | Df(x) g(x) dx + | f(x) Dg(x) dx
\| 0 \| 0

|\1 |\1
= | Df(x) g(x) dx - | f(x) (Df)(g(x))/f'(g(x)) dx
\| 0 \| 0

|\1 |\1
= | Df(x) g(x) dx - | f(f(x)) Df(x) dx [2]
\| 0 \| 0

The last step follows from the substitution x -> f(x).

For [2] to be 0 for all variations of f, we must have g(x) = f(f(x)),
which means f(f(f(x))) = x. f is strictly monotonically increasing, so
if f(x) > x for any x then f(f(f(x))) > x; likewise for f(x) < x. Thus,
f(x) = x for all x in [0,1].

As for the minimum, the infimum of the integral is 0, but that cannot be
realized within the restrictions given. One family of functions which
tends to this limit is f_n(x) = x^n, for which [1] < 1/(n+1).

Well, I reread the original post and realized that I left out one of the
constraints; that the integral of f was supposed to be 1/2. This foils
my family of functions for which [1] limits to 0.

This means that in addition to [2], the variation of f is constrained:

|\1
| Df(x) dx = 0 [3]
\| 0

This means that for [2] to vanish for all Df satisfying [3], we do not
need g(x) - f(f(x)) to vanish, only that it be constant. That is, we
need f(f(f(x))) = x + c. However, since the only constant that makes
this work at x = 0 and x = 1 is 0, we get the same result as before for
the maximum.

However, the minimum is not an extremal point in the sense that the
variation is 0, but that the variation is always positive with the given
constraints. The variation of [1] is given by [2]:

|\1
| (g(x) - f(f(x))) Df(x) dx [4]
\| 0

To ensure that [4] is positive for all variations of f allowable under
the constraints above, we need that Df(x) > 0 whenever g(x) > f(f(x))
and Df(x) < 0 whenever g(x) < f(f(x)). The way to do this is to have
f(x) = 0 whenever g(x) > f(f(x)), which as mentioned above is when
x > f(x), and f(x) = 1 whenever g(x) < f(f(x)), which is when x < f(x).
To keep the integral of f equal to 1/2 and the function monotonic, we
need to have f(x) = 0 when x < 1/2 and f(x) = 1 when x > 1/2. This step
function is not allowed by the strict monotonicity constraint, but we
can get as close as we want with functions like

x^m
f (x) = ------------- [5a]
n x^m + (1-x)^m

and its inverse

x^{1/m}
g (x) = --------------------- [5b]
n x^{1/m} + (1-x)^{1/m}

This means that the infimum of [1] is 1/4, not 0 as I mistakenly said
before ignoring the integral 1/2 constraint.

Rob Johnson <rob@trash.whim.org>
take out the trash before replying
Stephen J. Herschkorn
Posted: Sat Dec 20, 2003 10:12 pm
Guest
Leroy Quet wrote:

Quote:
Let f be any real -> real integrable function which is strictly
monotonically increasing, f(0) = 0 and f(1) = 1, and

where integral{0 to 1} f(x) dx = 1/2.


Let g be the inverse of f, f(g(x)) = x for each x from 0 to 1.


What f(x)('s) has the minimum, and which the maximum, for


integral{0 to 1} f(x)*g(x) dx ??


For g to be well-defined, f needs to be onto, hence continuous, no?

(Not that necessarily has much relevance to the problem.)

--
Stephen J. Herschkorn herschko@rutcor.rutgers.edu
 
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