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Marshall...
Posted: Wed May 07, 2008 11:56 am
Guest
I suppose the primitive recursive functions are supposed
to be those functions that provably terminate, is that right?
But there are functions that are not primitive recursive
that provably terminate.

It seems like the more useful approach would be just
to speak in terms of what provably terminates. That's
the important quality, is it not? For example, structurally
recursive functions provably always terminate, but I don't
see that they meet the definition of primitive recursive.
Any function with an algorithm that is recursive, has a
nonrecursive base case, and for which an order exists
for some subset of its arguments, such that recursive
invocations of the function (i.e., not the base case) uses
arguments that are strictly less than the previous invocation,
and whose domain is a set of elements greater than or
equal than the base case, provably terminates. This
is old hat stuff, but isn't covered by "primitive recursive."

(Also, is there any possible sense in which, say, a projection
function can be considered in any way "recursive"? I don't
see how. And yet it is "primitive recursive.")

On a related note, it seems that often the idea of totality
and termination are conflated. That seems wrong to me.
That a theorem prover may not return a result when asked
to prove a theorem is a very different case than a division
algorithm being asked to divide two arbitrary rational
numbers. Even though either one might fail to return a
value, in the first case you don't know if that's what's
happening, and in the second case you always do.

If I'm missing something, feel free to point and laugh,
only please be sure to tell me what it is I'm missing if
you do. Thanks.


Marshall
Chris Menzel...
Posted: Wed May 07, 2008 12:37 pm
Guest
On Wed, 7 May 2008 14:56:33 -0700 (PDT), Marshall
<marshall.spight at (no spam) gmail.com> said:
Quote:
I suppose the primitive recursive functions are supposed
to be those functions that provably terminate, is that right?

Well, no, for exactly the reason you give (where by a function
"terminating" we just mean that it's total on N):

Quote:
But there are functions that are not primitive recursive that provably
terminate.

The Ackermann function being a standard example.
MoeBlee...
Posted: Wed May 07, 2008 1:54 pm
Guest
On May 7, 2:56 pm, Marshall <marshall.spi... at (no spam) gmail.com> wrote:
Quote:
I suppose the primitive recursive functions are supposed
to be those functions that provably terminate, is that right?
But there are functions that are not primitive recursive
that provably terminate.

It seems like the more useful approach would be just
to speak in terms of what provably terminates. That's
the important quality, is it not? For example, structurally
recursive functions provably always terminate, but I don't
see that they meet the definition of primitive recursive.
Any function with an algorithm that is recursive, has a
nonrecursive base case, and for which an order exists
for some subset of its arguments, such that recursive
invocations of the function (i.e., not the base case) uses
arguments that are strictly less than the previous invocation,
and whose domain is a set of elements greater than or
equal than the base case, provably terminates. This
is old hat stuff, but isn't covered by "primitive recursive."

(Also, is there any possible sense in which, say, a projection
function can be considered in any way "recursive"? I don't
see how. And yet it is "primitive recursive.")

On a related note, it seems that often the idea of totality
and termination are conflated. That seems wrong to me.
That a theorem prover may not return a result when asked
to prove a theorem is a very different case than a division
algorithm being asked to divide two arbitrary rational
numbers. Even though either one might fail to return a
value, in the first case you don't know if that's what's
happening, and in the second case you always do.

If I'm missing something, feel free to point and laugh,
only please be sure to tell me what it is I'm missing if
you do. Thanks.

Marshall

At least one reason to note the distinction between primitive
recursive functions and total recursive functions is that the
primitive recursive functions all have algorithms that require only a
"do for" loop and don't require a "do while" loop, which is a feature
not ensured for arbitrary total recursive functions. Also, the
distinction is useful, since definability and representability of the
primitive recursive functions marks other distinctions in the
requirements for various kinds of languages and theories.

MoeBlee
MoeBlee...
Posted: Wed May 07, 2008 2:16 pm
Guest
On May 7, 2:56 pm, Marshall <marshall.spi... at (no spam) gmail.com> wrote:
Quote:
I suppose the primitive recursive functions are supposed
to be those functions that provably terminate, is that right?

They are a proper subset of the set of number-theoretic functions that
are Turing total computable, thus by a computation that terminates.
The set of total recursive functions is the full set.

Quote:
But there are functions that are not primitive recursive
that provably terminate.

That have Turing computations that terminate, right.

Quote:
It seems like the more useful approach would be just
to speak in terms of what provably terminates. That's
the important quality, is it not?

For many purposes, yes. But there are other considerations too. Such
as, that primitive recursive functions have algorithms that don't
require "do while" loops but only "do for" loops.

Quote:
For example, structurally
recursive functions provably always terminate, but I don't
see that they meet the definition of primitive recursive.

What? Of course they meet the definition of primitive recursive. The
very definition is that the set of recursive functions is the least
set closed from the primitive recursive functions under the mu
operation.

Quote:
Any function with an algorithm that is recursive, has a
nonrecursive base case,

So by 'recursive' here you must mean in the sense of "iterated" or
"self-calling" or something like that. Okay.

Quote:
and for which an order exists
for some subset of its arguments, such that recursive
invocations of the function (i.e., not the base case) uses
arguments that are strictly less than the previous invocation,

Wait. Do you mean the arguments are always strictly less as numbers or
do you mean they are less in the sense of being from a previous
"step"?

Quote:
and whose domain is a set of elements greater than or
equal than the base case, provably terminates. This
is old hat stuff, but isn't covered by "primitive recursive."

If I understand what you're saying, primitive recursive DOES include
the operation of recursion as you describe it. All that primitive
recursion lacks in comparison with general recursion is the mu
operation.

Quote:
(Also, is there any possible sense in which, say, a projection
function can be considered in any way "recursive"? I don't
see how. And yet it is "primitive recursive.")

The projection functions are primitive recursive, a fortiori,
recursive. Why wouldn't they be? First, on the formulation front, they
adhere to the definitions. Second, on the intuitive front, they don't
defy Church's thesis since they are Turing computable.

Quote:
On a related note, it seems that often the idea of totality
and termination are conflated. That seems wrong to me.
That a theorem prover may not return a result when asked
to prove a theorem is a very different case than a division
algorithm being asked to divide two arbitrary rational
numbers. Even though either one might fail to return a
value, in the first case you don't know if that's what's
happening, and in the second case you always do.

Totality and termination are thought together in the sense that a
Turing machine to compute a total recursive function terminates on
every computation whereas one for a partial recursive function
terminates only if the function is indeed total. That's just a fact; I
don't see what sense there is in saying that anything has been
conflated.

MoeBlee
herbzet...
Posted: Thu May 08, 2008 8:49 pm
Guest
MoeBlee wrote:
Quote:
MoeBlee wrote:

the
primitive recursive functions all have algorithms that require only a
"do for" loop and don't require a "do while" loop

I meant 'do until' not 'do while' there.

"Do while X" = "Do until not-X".

--
hz
Chris Menzel...
Posted: Fri May 09, 2008 8:22 am
Guest
On Thu, 8 May 2008 09:46:45 -0700 (PDT), MoeBlee <jazzmobe at (no spam) hotmail.com> said:
Quote:
On May 7, 4:54 pm, MoeBlee <jazzm... at (no spam) hotmail.com> wrote:

the primitive recursive functions all have algorithms that require
only a "do for" loop and don't require a "do while" loop

I meant 'do until' not 'do while' there.

Either would do, no? They differ slightly in behavior, but those
constructs are exactly equivalent in terms of computational strength.
Anything you can program in terms of the one you can program in terms of
the other.
MoeBlee...
Posted: Fri May 09, 2008 12:31 pm
Guest
On May 9, 11:22 am, Chris Menzel <cmen... at (no spam) remove-this.tamu.edu> wrote:
Quote:
On Thu, 8 May 2008 09:46:45 -0700 (PDT), MoeBlee <jazzm... at (no spam) hotmail.com> said:

On May 7, 4:54 pm, MoeBlee <jazzm... at (no spam) hotmail.com> wrote:

the primitive recursive functions all have algorithms that require
only a "do for" loop and don't require a "do while" loop

I meant 'do until' not 'do while' there.

Either would do, no?  They differ slightly in behavior, but those
constructs are exactly equivalent in terms of computational strength.
Anything you can program in terms of the one you can program in terms of
the other.

I think so. I just made the qualification for the sake of being
uniform by choosing a particular terminology.

Do you have any thoughts on my question about the notion of
'finitistic'. Why do people limit 'finitistic' to primitive recursive?
Why not take finitistic as anything total recursive?

MoeBlee
Aatu Koskensilta...
Posted: Fri May 09, 2008 9:03 pm
Guest
On 2008-05-09, in sci.logic, MoeBlee wrote:
Quote:
Do you have any thoughts on my question about the notion of
'finitistic'. Why do people limit 'finitistic' to primitive recursive?
Why not take finitistic as anything total recursive?

Because not all total recursive functions are recognisable as such by
finitistic principles.

The restriction to primitive recursive functions stems from the fact
that the principle of definition by primitive recursion is equivalent
to the principle of induction. Solely on basis of our basic
understanding of the naturals as what one obtains from 0 by repeatedly
applying the "add one"-operation the principle of induction and the
principle of definition by primitive recursive induction are equally
compelling. This is the reason for taking primitive recursive
arithmetic as the canonical formalisation for finitism; if we further
allow that properties definable from primitive recursive properties by
means of the usual logical operations of first-order logic --
including unrestricted quantification --, in effect accepting the
totality of the naturals as something determinate, we get PA.

--
Aatu Koskensilta (aatu.koskensilta at (no spam) xortec.fi)

"Wovon man nicht sprechen kann, daruber muss man schweigen"
- Ludwig Wittgenstein, Tractatus Logico-Philosophicus
LauLuna...
Posted: Sat May 10, 2008 9:58 am
Guest
On May 10, 4:03 am, Aatu Koskensilta <aatu.koskensi... at (no spam) xortec.fi>
wrote:
Quote:
On 2008-05-09, in sci.logic, MoeBlee wrote:

Do you have any thoughts on my question about the notion of
'finitistic'. Why do people limit 'finitistic' to primitive recursive?
Why not take finitistic as anything total recursive?

Because not all total recursive functions are recognisable as such by
finitistic principles.

The restriction to primitive recursive functions stems from the fact
that the principle of definition by primitive recursion is equivalent
to the principle of induction. Solely on basis of our basic
understanding of the naturals as what one obtains from 0 by repeatedly
applying the "add one"-operation the principle of induction and the
principle of definition by primitive recursive induction are equally
compelling. This is the reason for taking primitive recursive
arithmetic as the canonical formalisation for finitism; if we further
allow that properties definable from primitive recursive properties by
means of the usual logical operations of first-order logic --
including unrestricted quantification --, in effect accepting the
totality of the naturals as something determinate, we get PA.

--
Aatu Koskensilta (aatu.koskensi... at (no spam) xortec.fi)

"Wovon man nicht sprechen kann, daruber muss man schweigen"
 - Ludwig Wittgenstein, Tractatus Logico-Philosophicus

A question concerning terminology:

'Primitive recursive' is to be opposed to 'total recursive' or to
'general recursive'?

If I remember, primitive recursive functions are all total, while
recursive functions may not be total, i.e. not defined for all
arguments, isn't it?
Chris Menzel...
Posted: Sat May 10, 2008 11:38 am
Guest
On Thu, 08 May 2008 21:49:21 -0400, herbzet <herbzet at (no spam) gmail.com> said:
Quote:
MoeBlee wrote:
MoeBlee wrote:

the primitive recursive functions all have algorithms that require
only a "do for" loop and don't require a "do while" loop

I meant 'do until' not 'do while' there.

"Do while X" = "Do until not-X".

Well, yeah, 'cept if X is false, "Do while X" will skip the associated
procedure whilst "Do until not-X" will run through it once.
Marshall...
Posted: Sat May 10, 2008 6:15 pm
Guest
On May 10, 2:38 pm, Chris Menzel <cmen... at (no spam) remove-this.tamu.edu> wrote:
Quote:
On Thu, 08 May 2008 21:49:21 -0400, herbzet <herb... at (no spam) gmail.com> said:

I meant 'do until' not 'do while' there.

"Do while X" = "Do until not-X".

Well, yeah, 'cept if X is false, "Do while X" will skip the associated
procedure whilst "Do until not-X" will run through it once.

I'm feeling a bit of disorientation. We're talking Pascal terminology
now, right? Not logic?


Marshall
Chris Menzel...
Posted: Sun May 11, 2008 9:22 am
Guest
On Sun, 11 May 2008 14:56:50 GMT, Aatu Koskensilta
<aatu.koskensilta at (no spam) xortec.fi> said:
Quote:
On 2008-05-10, in sci.logic, Chris Menzel wrote:
Well, yeah, 'cept if X is false, "Do while X" will skip the
associated procedure whilst "Do until not-X" will run through it
once.

That might well be. I'm not au courant on the intricacies of Pascal
and other such horrors of the programming language Pantheon.

Hey, careful now, those of us of the Turbo Pascal generation will always
have a special place in our hearts for Pascal! I learned to program in
LISP on a Symbolics 3640, and in the heady environment of mid-1980s
Stanford they were so common one could stumble over the damn things.
But after leaving, Turbo Pascal on my IBM clone was for me pretty much
the only game in town. Of course it wasn't nearly as sophisticated and
as mathematically elegant as LISP, but you just weren't going to
shoehorn a full LISP implementation complete with IDE and garbage
collection into 64k. At 50 bucks, TP gave the ordinary user a real
programming environment.

Quote:
MoeBlee's original point was, presumably, that primitive recursive
functions are those functions expressible in a programming language
with as its sole looping construct one that allows one to loop from n
to m, where m is a constant that must be determined prior to entering
the loop. That is, we can't have loping constructs of the kind "do
until condition X holds" or "do while condition X holds".

That was of course his point. And my point was nothing more than the
trivial nit it appears to be. Smile
Chris Menzel...
Posted: Sun May 11, 2008 9:31 am
Guest
On Sun, 11 May 2008 09:05:09 -0700 (PDT), Marshall
<marshall.spight at (no spam) gmail.com> said:
Quote:
On May 11, 2:39 am, William Hale <h... at (no spam) tulane.edu> wrote:
In article
326dd4b2-5f53-45e8-a8dd-05e3d044e... at (no spam) w5g2000prd.googlegroups.com>,

Marshall <marshall.spi... at (no spam) gmail.com> wrote:
On May 10, 2:38 pm, Chris Menzel <cmen... at (no spam) remove-this.tamu.edu
wrote:
On Thu, 08 May 2008 21:49:21 -0400, herbzet <herb... at (no spam) gmail.com
said:

I meant 'do until' not 'do while' there.

"Do while X" = "Do until not-X".

Well, yeah, 'cept if X is false, "Do while X" will skip the
associated procedure whilst "Do until not-X" will run through it
once.

I'm feeling a bit of disorientation. We're talking Pascal
terminology now, right?

The above distinction between "do while" and "do until" applies not
only to Pascal, but to all the common programming languages.

Sure. Or anyway, the distinction between a loop construct that
executes at least once and one that doesn't is common. The Pascal-y
flavor of the choice of terms I still find disorienting, though.
Pascal as a thought-leader! It is as if I woke up and found that
teenagers now think John Wayne is cool.

Smile I think the explanation is just that simple Algol-style languages
(of which Pascal is perhaps the best known) are a common choice for
approaching the theory of computability via programming.
herbzet...
Posted: Sun May 11, 2008 7:30 pm
Guest
Chris Menzel wrote:
Quote:

On Thu, 08 May 2008 21:49:21 -0400, herbzet <herbzet at (no spam) gmail.com> said:
MoeBlee wrote:
MoeBlee wrote:

the primitive recursive functions all have algorithms that require
only a "do for" loop and don't require a "do while" loop

I meant 'do until' not 'do while' there.

"Do while X" = "Do until not-X".

Well, yeah, 'cept if X is false, "Do while X" will skip the associated
procedure whilst "Do until not-X" will run through it once.

Yes, I forgot about that.

--
hz
Nam D. Nguyen...
Posted: Sun May 25, 2008 11:27 pm
Guest
MoeBlee wrote:
Quote:
On May 17, 9:10 am, "Nam D. Nguyen" <namducngu... at (no spam) shaw.ca> wrote:

Then re-read what he wrote which is quoted above, the one that has
"Solely on basis of ... repeatedly applying the "add one"-operation ...".
If that doesn't sound like Presburger artihmetic to you then that's
your own reading, not mine!

No, Presburger arithmetic has the two axioms for addition:

x+0=x
x+(Sy)=S(x+y).

As far as "add one" is concerned Sn = n + 1, so how does that *refute*
my saying that his *informal* statement sound like Presburger arithmetic?

Quote:
That is not what Aatu mentioned.

Typically, an informal statement doesn't have to refer to everything!
Would this be difficult to comprehend?

My point in questioning his statement is we've taken for granted that
the concept of the naturals is an intuitive concept, not a formalized
one. Because if it were, he could have easily stated the axioms for
the naturals, instead of saying it in a half-intuitive-half-formalized
way, as he did in the quoted statement.

Quote:
The "add one" operation is the
successor operation. The "add one" operation in this sense is
characteristic of Peano systems,

You're making the same kind of mistake: if Presburger artihmetic alone
can't characterize PA, neither can the successor function!

Quote:
from which we THEN go on to prove the
existence of certain functions such as addition (i.e., addition of two
natural numbers not JUST adding 1 to any given number), as Presburger
arithmetic axiomatizes.

As far as a formal system is concerned, "THEN go on to" simply means
we have to add more axioms. And as far as we don't mention any axioms
about multiplication, then our system couldn't characterize the
naturals. Which is my whole point here, and which is very simple to
understand!

Quote:
I am asking what do you mean by 'arithmetic' as a THEORY. I.e., what
particular theory do you refer to when you say 'arithmetic' in the
phrase 'strong as arithmetic'.

Canonically it's an extension of Q, though in the thread
"Pseudo Negation - A Formal Definition of "As Strong as Arithmetic"
I did have a refined definition.

If you feel generous, you might mention that defintion here and
restate whatever point you were trying to make but now based on that
definiiton.

I'll make a compromise: I'll only point it out it was posted on May 3rd;
you just have to go and read it (it isn't too long). And I don't have
any point here with the refined definition, other than answering your
own question about what I meant by "arithmetic" or "strong as arithmetic"!

Quote:
There is the theory of
all true sentences of arithmetic in the language of PA.

Are you sure you'd know exactly what that theory is? For example,
what are some examples of its *non-trivial* theorems? [Hint: one
can actually define "true" sentences even for an inconsistent theory!]

I spent about two straight weeks explaining this to you already. It's
found in just about any textbook on mathematical logic.
Yeah you did. But I also spend 2-3 weeks in a row giving out my
counter-explanation to you.

There is no "counterexample" to the fact that in ordinary mathematical
logic we define the set of sentences true in the standard model of PA
and that that set is a consistent, negation complete theory, though
not a recursively axiomatizable one.

How would *you* know "that set" is consistent when you couldn't tell an example
of its non-trivial theorems?

Quote:
Notwithstanding all that, I asked a very simple question: "what are some
examples of its *non-trivial* theorems?". Can't you just simply answer
that question, without going back to what was debated in the past?

What is the point of the question? Whether I can name "non-trivial
theorems" or not has no bearing on the fact that what I said is
correct: we define the set of sentences true in the standard model of
PA and that set is a consistent, negation complete theory, though not
a recursively axiomatizable one.

The point of the question is you *need* axioms and rule of inference
to *make sense of out _any_ truth definitions, including the standard
definition of true sentences*.

There are always more than one way of defining true sentences. Consequently,
there's no such a thing as a *genuinely* true sentence that everyone must
accept as true. It's all just a matter of defining - of mapping a sentence
to a binary value. The real question is how well such a mapping would rhyme
with the theorems of an axiom set (a formal system). In other words, to the
extend that you take one definition (of true sentence) and *assume* such is
a model of PA, you still don't know if such "model" would guarantee there's
not theorems of the form (F /\ ~F), because theorems are solely determined
by axioms and rules of inference, not by true sentences (or definition of)!

Quote:
And you'd have to define "non-trivial" in this context, if you want a
formal answer. Is "1+1=2" trivial?

You seriously don't understand what a non-trivial theorem is? It seems
just a basic "abc" in getting to know formalism! Any rate, it's just
a theorem which is not an axiom! For one example in PA, SS0 = S0 + S0
is a non-trivial theorem. For another in PA, ExAy (x < (y+1)) is non-trivial.

Quote:
Meanwhile, if you gave an example
of what you consider to be a non-trivial theorem (of some theory) in
the language of PA, then perhaps I can tell you whether it's also a
member of the set of sentences true in the standard model for the
language of PA.

Let cGC df= 'There are infinite counter examples of GC', then ~GC is
a non-trivial theorem of {cGC}. Perhaps you could tell us, as you seemed
eager to do so, if ~GC is "a member of the set of sentences true in the
standard model for the language of PA"?

Quote:
It is the
theory that is the set of sentences true in the standard model of the
language of PA. It is not a decidable theory and not even recursively
axiomatizable. It is a consistent theory though, as I explained to you
several times several months ago.
And I've explained to you in many post of the past that one could
*only assume it's consistent*!

You're ill-informed. By definition, it can't be an inconsistent
theory. There is no such thing as both a sentence P and ~P being true
in any model.

But how do you know that formal system (that theory) is consistent so
that it would have "any model", to begin with? You're being circular
but don't realize it. Just defining a set of true sentences and *label*
it a model of a theory (i.e. a formal system) doesn't necessarily make
it a model of a theory.

Quote:

Eiher GC or ~GC is provable in that theory, though it is not a recursively
axiomatized theory.
You wouldn't know "that theory" enough to assert this kind of provability
"fact"!
I don't know what you're trying to say.

What I said is simple: a theory is a formal system which must have *known*
axioms.

That's a another definition of 'theory', not the defintion of 'theory'
that I've been using. If you insist on using your defintion rather
than mine, then okay, I'll use 'set_closed_under_entailment' instead.
Then where I've used 'theory', just substitute
'set_closed_under_entailment', or better yet, just recognize, as
reasonable people do, that different authors use different definitions
and that in this context, by 'theory' I mean 'set of sentences closed
under entailment'.

All of this from you still doesn't make it wrong that a theory is still
a formal system, an axiom set, where it theorems must follow rules of inference,
and where if it's syntactically inconsistent, no amount of true-sentence
definitions could generate a model for it!

Quote:

IF you don't *know* enough about these axioms you wouldn't necessarily
know if a particular F, say, GC or ~GC, is provable!

What are you so excited about? It's already been granted from the
start of this discussion that we do not know whether GC is a member of
ThN (where 'ThN' stands for the set of sentences true in the standard
model for the language of PA).

First of all, this seems to contradict to what you've stated above:

"if you gave an example...[of] a non-trivial theorem (of some theory)
in the language of PA, then perhaps I can tell you whether it's also a
member of the set of sentences true in the standard model for the
language of PA."

Secondly, you seem to have a problem in listening to what your opponent
said: I talked about "axioms" and "provable" which are syntactical and
you *kept* going back and forth about "true sentences", as if you ignored
what I had just said! No wondering why our conversation is going no
where!

What I got "excited" about is basically there's a loophole in the foundation
of FOL: on the one hand we must depend on finite syntactical to protect
our reasoning from inconsistent conclusions, but on the other hand we went
ahead and made *intuitive assumption* about the naturals number, at the
expense of rigidity of syntactical proofs, through rules of inference!

Quote:
Also from the beginning it it
recognized that the notion of 'provability' as being recursive whether
a string of formulas is a proof does not apply to ThN since it is not
recursively axiomatizable. But, if GC is decided in, say, ZFC, then,
even though we might not know which way the decision goes, still, we
know that either GC or ~GC is a member of ThN.

How do you know if ZFC is not *syntactically inconsistent*? Anyone can
always say "If 'this' then 'that'" but that doesn't take away the fact we
sometimes would like the reasoning framework to determine whether or
not it is "this", or "that" that we could *infer for certain*! In other
words, what good is a mathematical logic framework if all we could assert
is "If 'this' then 'that'"? At least if such framework itself provides
a way to acknowledge such shortcoming, then chances are it'd be more
trustworthy.


Quote:
And if GC is not
decided in ZFC, then there is something of a "puzzling" situation,
which I've discussed before and even as part of my reason for admiring
Hilbert's finitistic distinction between the contentual and the ideal.

Sorry, this Hilbert's "finitistic distinction..." sounds a bit philosophical
to me and I have no comment on this.

Quote:
What I said is correct: The
set of sentences true in the standard model of the language of PA is
negation complete but not a recursively axiomatizable theory.
Is that "theory" is Q then?

Of course not!!! That you even ask that question, after I explained
over and over and over for about a month, shows that you weren't even
reading what I wrote back then.

If not, then I don't know what you meant by
"that theory", despite the fact that we have a canonical definition of
the set of true sentences.

You don't know, because you're an arrogant snot who doesn't LISTEN to
what other people say: I explained over and over and over, for about a
MONTH, that "that theory" is EXACTLY the set of sentences true in the
standard model for the language of PA. This is common mathematical
logic. Look at, e.g., Enderton's logic book in which he makes this
central to his treatment of the subject of incompleteness.

I'm not an arrogant "snot"; you're just a modern time Inquisitor, that's all.

You just didn't understand my questions (or mis-interpreted the questions) but
went ahead answered them! I most likely would ask questions about provability
from axioms which are *syntactical* in nature, and you have only one-mantra
kind of answer "... true sentences ...", which is intuitive in nature.

(It's hard to converse when you asked a guy something specifically about
an apple and he kept answering specially about an orange, wouldn't you think so?)

Quote:
Meanwhile, if GC is true then there is a
recursively axiomatized theory in which GC is provable and true and if
GC is false then there is a recursively axiomatized theory in which
~GC is provable and true. We can devise such theories in two seconds,
just by taking either GC or ~GC as axioms.
You had "taking either GC or ~GC as axioms" but "axioms" is plural!
Thanks for the proof reading.
And I don't think you meant {GC} and {~GC} since they're not considered
as "arithmetic theories"! So, I don't really understand what you said above!
I mean take GC or ~GC as an axiom, but not both.
So what are the other axioms?

I said EXPLICITLY, over and over and over, for about a month, that I
am using 'theory' in the sense NOT of a set of axioms and its
consequences, but rather in the sense of a set of sentences closed
under entailment. ThN is not recursively axiomatizable. However,
trivially, one axiomatization of ThN, which is NOT recursive, is ThN
itself.

If your sense of 'theory' is "NOT of a set of axioms", then what in the name
of reasoning in FOL is your sense of *rules of inference*?

Quote:
And - one more time - what are some examples
of *non-trivial* theorems? How would you know that syntactically GC /\ ~GC
is not a theorem?

How many times am I going to explain this while you DON'T even listen?
No contradiction is a theorem of ThN since no contradiction is true in
any model whatsoever.

Since to you a "theory" is not a formal systems where axioms and rules of
inference play the key role in reasoning, I very much am not interested
in what's being said here.

Quote:

This challenges the notion that the set of FOL rules of inference is adequate
enough to make it possible to solve all the provability problems.
I don't know what you mean by "all the provability problems".
It should be simple: the collection of "all the provability problems"
would include the question about GC's provability in, say, Q!

Okay. But then I dont know what exact claim in mathematical logic you
read as "the set of FOL rules of inference is adequate enough to make
it possible to solve all the provability problems." Please cite for me
the exact claim, as found in ordinary mathematical logic or as posted
by someone, that needs to be "challenged" in this regard. For example,
it's well recognized that Q is incomplete and that there is no
decision procedure that determines whether GC is a theorem of Q. So I
don't know what exactly you wish to "challenge".

The shortcoming of FOL is that it doesn't even formally admit this shortcoming.
I didn't know that it is even within the scope of deductive calculus
to "admit" its own "shortcomings".
I hope that you do know that by now!

So, your mathematical point is...?

To make it simple for you to comprehend, my point is there's no way
you could know if Q is consistent. The best you could do is assuming
it be consistent, by assuming that the "naturals" be one of its model!


Quote:

MoeBlee
 
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