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Han de Bruijn
Posted: Tue Apr 29, 2008 2:50 am
Guest
Quote:
integral(t=0..1) ln( (a+cos(t))^2 + (b+sin(t))^2 ) dt = ?

Han de Bruijn
David C. Ullrich
Posted: Tue Apr 29, 2008 6:29 am
Guest
On Tue, 29 Apr 2008 09:50:44 +0200, Han de Bruijn
<Han.deBruijn@DTO.TUDelft.NL> wrote:

Quote:
integral(t=0..1) ln( (a+cos(t))^2 + (b+sin(t))^2 ) dt = ?

Did you really mean that, or did you mean

integral(t=0..2pi) ln( (a+cos(t))^2 + (b+sin(t))^2 ) dt

or equivalently

integral(t=0..1) ln( (a+cos(2pi*t))^2 + (b+sin(2pi*t))^2 ) dt

? I can tell you what _those_ integrals are...

Quote:
Han de Bruijn

David C. Ullrich
Han de Bruijn
Posted: Tue Apr 29, 2008 6:47 am
Guest
David C. Ullrich wrote:

Quote:
On Tue, 29 Apr 2008 09:50:44 +0200, Han de Bruijn
Han.deBruijn@DTO.TUDelft.NL> wrote:

integral(t=0..1) ln( (a+cos(t))^2 + (b+sin(t))^2 ) dt = ?

Did you really mean that, or did you mean

integral(t=0..2pi) ln( (a+cos(t))^2 + (b+sin(t))^2 ) dt

or equivalently

integral(t=0..1) ln( (a+cos(2pi*t))^2 + (b+sin(2pi*t))^2 ) dt

? I can tell you what _those_ integrals are...

Yes, I've made a typo. Sorry. And yes, I meant one of _those_ integrals.
If you tell me what they are, can you please also give me a hint of how
you've arrived at the results. I can understand some (complex) calculus.

Han de Bruijn
Robert Israel
Posted: Tue Apr 29, 2008 1:21 pm
Guest
Han de Bruijn <Han.deBruijn@DTO.TUDelft.NL> writes:

Quote:
integral(t=0..1) ln( (a+cos(t))^2 + (b+sin(t))^2 ) dt = ?

Maple 11:

Quote:
int( ln((a+cos(t))^2 + (b+sin(t))^2), t) ;

2 2
ln(2) ln(exp(t I)) I - ln(exp(t I)) ln((2 a exp(t I)

3 4 2
+ 2 a exp(t I) + 2 a exp(t I) + exp(t I) + 2 exp(t I) + 1

2 2 3 / 2
+ 2 b exp(t I) + 2 b exp(t I) + 2 b exp(t I)) / exp(t I) )
/

/ -----
| \
I + | )
| /
| -----
\_R1 = %1

\
/ _R1 - exp(t I) _R1 - exp(t I) \|
|ln(exp(t I)) ln(--------------) + dilog(--------------)|| I
\ _R1 _R1 /|
|
/

2
- ln(exp(t I)) I

4 3 2 2 2
%1 := RootOf(1 + _Z + (2 b + 2 a) _Z + (2 a + 2 b + 2) _Z

+ (2 b + 2 a) _Z)

Now use FTC (being careful to watch out for branch cuts in the antiderivative).
--
Robert Israel israel@math.MyUniversitysInitials.ca
Department of Mathematics http://www.math.ubc.ca/~israel
University of British Columbia Vancouver, BC, Canada
Guest
Posted: Tue Apr 29, 2008 11:54 pm
On 29 apr, 20:21, Robert Israel <isr...@math.MyUniversitysInitials.ca>
wrote:
Quote:
Han de Bruijn<Han.deBru...@DTO.TUDelft.NL> writes:

 > integral(t=0..1) ln( (a+cos(t))^2 + (b+sin(t))^2 ) dt = ?

Maple11:

int( ln((a+cos(t))^2 + (b+sin(t))^2), t) ;

                                           2         2
ln(2) ln(exp(t I)) I - ln(exp(t I)) ln((2 a  exp(t I)

                   3                          4             2
     + 2 a exp(t I)  + 2 a exp(t I) + exp(t I)  + 2 exp(t I)  + 1

          2         2               3                   /         2
     + 2 b  exp(t I)  + 2 b exp(t I)  + 2 b exp(t I))  /  exp(t I) )
                                                      /

        / -----
        |  \
    I + |   )
        |  /
        | -----
        \_R1 = %1

                                                             \
    /                _R1 - exp(t I)          _R1 - exp(t I) \|
    |ln(exp(t I)) ln(--------------) + dilog(--------------)|| I
    \                     _R1                     _R1       /|
                                                             |
                                                             /

                   2
     - ln(exp(t I))  I

                   4                 3       2      2        2
%1 := RootOf(1 + _Z  + (2 b + 2 a) _Z  + (2 a  + 2 b  + 2) _Z

     + (2 b + 2 a) _Z)

Now use FTC (being careful to watch out for branch cuts in the antiderivative).
--
Robert Israel              isr...@math.MyUniversitysInitials.ca
Department of Mathematics        http://www.math.ubc.ca/~israel
University of British Columbia            Vancouver, BC, Canada

Sorry, Robert, what I meant (typo) was:

integral(t=0..(2.pi)) ln( (a+cos(t))^2 + (b+sin(t))^2 ) dt

And I'm expecting a much simpler outcome with this.

Han de Bruijn
David C. Ullrich
Posted: Thu May 01, 2008 7:36 am
Guest
On Tue, 29 Apr 2008 13:47:25 +0200, Han de Bruijn
<Han.deBruijn@DTO.TUDelft.NL> wrote:

Quote:
David C. Ullrich wrote:

On Tue, 29 Apr 2008 09:50:44 +0200, Han de Bruijn
Han.deBruijn@DTO.TUDelft.NL> wrote:

integral(t=0..1) ln( (a+cos(t))^2 + (b+sin(t))^2 ) dt = ?

Did you really mean that, or did you mean

integral(t=0..2pi) ln( (a+cos(t))^2 + (b+sin(t))^2 ) dt

or equivalently

integral(t=0..1) ln( (a+cos(2pi*t))^2 + (b+sin(2pi*t))^2 ) dt

? I can tell you what _those_ integrals are...

Yes, I've made a typo. Sorry. And yes, I meant one of _those_ integrals.
If you tell me what they are, can you please also give me a hint of how
you've arrived at the results. I can understand some (complex) calculus.

There are two cases (really three, I suppose).

Assume first that a^2 + b^2 > 1. Let's define

I = integral(t=0..2pi) ln( (a+cos(t))^2 + (b+sin(t))^2 ) dt .

If a^2 + b^2 > 1 then I = (2pi) log(sqrt(a^2+b^2)).

The reason is this: The function u(z) = log|z| is harmonic
in the region C' = the complex plane minus the origin.
So if D is a disk contained in that region then the value
of u at the center is equal to the average of the values
of u on the boundary. _Note_ that the disk needs to
be contained in C' (!).

This says that if z <> 0 and 0 < r < |z| then

(*) u(z) = 1/(2 pi) int_0^(2 pi) u(z + r e^{it}) dt.

Now let z = a + bi and let r = 1. Our assumption
that a^2 + b^2 > 1 shows that r < |z|. so you can
apply (*) to find the value of I in this case.

Now if r > |z| then the disk with center z and radius r
is not contained in the region where u is harmonic,
so we can't apply (*). In that case we use a little
trick: Since u(z) depends on on the value of |z|
we see that

1/(2 pi) int_0^(2 pi) u(z + r e^{it}) dt

= 1/(2 pi) int_0^(2 pi) u(r + z e^{-it}) dt.

The last integral is the average of u on the disk
with center r and radius |z|: now if |z| < r then
_that_ disk is contained in the region where
u is harmonic, so we see that _if_ |z| < r then

1/(2 pi) int_0^(2 pi) u(z + r e^{it}) dt = u(r).

If a^2 + b^2 < 1 then apply this with z = a + ib
and r = 1 to show that I = 0.

We haven't covered the case a^2 + b^2 = 1. By
some sort of limiting argument it follows that
I = 0 in that case as well.

Quote:
Han de Bruijn

David C. Ullrich
 
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