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| Guest |
Posted: Mon Apr 28, 2008 2:54 am |
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On Apr 28, 4:03pm, mb <azyth...@gmail.com> wrote:
Quote: On Apr 27, 10:43pm, "Paul J Kriha"
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It's a well worn phrase, how sure are you Dus^an did get
the translation from a Serbian Greek textbook?
How can I be sure without even knowing Serbian? I don't suppose that
Bulgarian nursery rhymes learnt before age 3 would qualify.
Instead of you all just bickering endlessly and pointlessly you could
try answering the question which is the purpose of this forum. Much
more constructive. Noone wants to see your names on every post just
for the sake of it. |
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| ranjit_mathews@yahoo.com |
Posted: Mon Apr 28, 2008 5:37 am |
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On Apr 27, 9:44 pm, mb <azyth...@gmail.com> wrote:
Quote: On Apr 27, 8:49 pm, "ranjit_math...@yahoo.com"
δεî τον Ήρακλέα κρατεîν τόν τ' εν Νεμέᾳ λέοντα τούς τε γίγαντας τά καθ' Έλλάδα τέρατα.
As for the precision, it is not *precise to translate deî by "it is
crucial". Just expresses "should-or-must".
"*ho *Heraklía / Herakléa" is impossible; the definite article always
take the nominative.
Is it possible to reword the sentence with Ho Herakles using some
other verb that takes an active form?
Quote: "Ton Herakléa deî" already translates "H. must" because the verb is a
different verb than the one that you use in English, with a different
pronominal structure. Some verbs are middle-reflexive or passive in
Greek that are transitive and active in English,
This is what I was looking for. Thanks. |
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| Joachim Pense |
Posted: Mon Apr 28, 2008 11:03 am |
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mb (in sci.lang):
Quote: On Apr 27, 8:49 pm, "ranjit_math...@yahoo.com"
δεî τον Ήρακλέα κρατεîν τόν τ' εν Νεμέᾳ λέοντα τούς τε γίγαντας
τά καθ' Έλλάδα τέρατα.
"Ton Herakléa deî" already translates "H. must" because the verb is a
different verb than the one that you use in English, with a different
pronominal structure.
To grasp the structure, observe the infinitive κρατεîν. It is just an
Accusative-with-Infinitive construction.
δεî τον Ήρακλέα κρατεîν
It is necessary tha Heracles defeats.
More literal:
*It is necessary Heracles to defeat
as in
I need Heracles to defeat.
Only I don't see if the ACI works in English with a non-personal subject.
Joachim |
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| mb |
Posted: Mon Apr 28, 2008 11:31 am |
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On Apr 28, 2:36am, Duan Vukoti
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Quote: Question to Dushan: Are you aware of an earlier, popular pre-19th C
layer of mythologic borrowings in Serbian (like for example Irakli for
Heracles, Adi for hell or death, etc?) Please avoid Bel-Gon references.
Ad in Serbian (underworld, hell). P.P. Njego (Serbian 19th century
poet: "U ad mi se svijet pretvorio" ("My world turned to hell"; ad
Hades)
Herkul, Herkules, Heraklo, Iraklije, Herkules - you can use any of
these names in Serbian.
Thank you for the info, Dushan. Very useful. |
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| mb |
Posted: Mon Apr 28, 2008 11:39 am |
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On Apr 28, 1:35pm, "wugi" <b...@scarlet.be> wrote:
Quote: "mb" :> "Ton Herakla de" already translates "H. must" because the verb is a
different verb than the one that you use in English, with a different
pronominal structure. Some verbs are middle-reflexive or passive in
Greek that are transitive and active in English, some impersonal in
English are not so in Greek, etc. Just as "ton Hrakla" translates "to
Herakls" or "for Herakls", not -a. So translation has nothing to do
with your question. I suppose the question involves something further
to do with structure, but translationwise that's all.
---
Medium or passive are not the point here anyway.
Not here, of course. The point is about defining translation and the
many differences that make an exact word-for-word (and respect of word
order and function) the contrary of translation.
Quote: It's an impersonal verb as
they come in English too. The accusative+infinitive clause can be rendered
as:
It's necessary (for) Herakles to defeat ....
It can be "rendered", but that rendering is totally different from
*translation*. That these exercises (including some exercises in in
absurdity) are titled "translation" in the classical study terminology
of several languages does not make it so. To take English, this turn
of phrase for should/must is not idiomatic English except in very rare
situations, while it is perfectly idiomatic everyday Greek of its own
time (and remains so if you replace de by prpei). |
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| mb |
Posted: Mon Apr 28, 2008 11:45 am |
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On Apr 28, 5:54am, stefan_ste...@hotmail.com wrote:
Quote: On Apr 28, 4:03pm, mb <azyth...@gmail.com> wrote:
On Apr 27, 10:43pm, "Paul J Kriha"
...
It's a well worn phrase, how sure are you Dus^an did get
the translation from a Serbian Greek textbook?
How can I be sure without even knowing Serbian? I don't suppose that
Bulgarian nursery rhymes learnt before age 3 would qualify.
Instead of you all just bickering endlessly and pointlessly you could
try answering the question which is the purpose of this forum. Much
more constructive. Noone wants to see your names on every post just
for the sake of it.
The purpose of this forum, I submit, is for anyone to discuss whatever
grabs his fancy, or even to soliloquize if there are no takers. Forums
where there is an obligation to immediately provide the service
requested by someone else may exist but they sure aren't unmoderated
public forums like this one. For being constructive, I guess you'll
have to try alt.building.contractors. Good luck in your quest. |
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| wugi |
Posted: Mon Apr 28, 2008 3:35 pm |
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"mb" :
Quote: "Ton Herakla de" already translates "H. must" because the verb is a
different verb than the one that you use in English, with a different
pronominal structure. Some verbs are middle-reflexive or passive in
Greek that are transitive and active in English, some impersonal in
English are not so in Greek, etc. Just as "ton Hrakla" translates "to
Herakls" or "for Herakls", not -a. So translation has nothing to do
with your question. I suppose the question involves something further
to do with structure, but translationwise that's all.
---
Medium or passive are not the point here anyway. It's an impersonal verb as
they come in English too. The accusative+infinitive clause can be rendered
as:
It's necessary (for) Herakles to defeat ....
Such clause may also occur with personal verbs:
I take him to be the father....
In Dutch we have this saying, admittedly presumably a calque from Latin:
Elk meent zijn uil een valk te zijn.
Everybody thinks his owl to be a falcon )
It can perhaps be compared with double accusative constructions as in Latin
Petere aliquem aliquod, to ask sby sth.
(To be necessary sby doing sth...)
guido
http://home.scarlet.be/~pin12499 |
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| Nigel Greenwood |
Posted: Mon Apr 28, 2008 10:45 pm |
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On Apr 28, 5:44am, mb <azyth...@gmail.com> wrote:
Quote: "*ho *Herakla / Herakla" is impossible; the definite article always
take the nominative.
This must be a typo: it's a bit meaningless as it stands! I think we
all understand what it means, though: ho is the nom. def. art & thus
always goes with a noun in the nom. case.
Nigel
--
ScriptMaster language resources (Chinese/Modern & Classical Greek/IPA/
Persian/Russian/Turkish):
http://www.elgin.free-online.co.uk |
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| mb |
Posted: Tue Apr 29, 2008 2:15 am |
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On Apr 29, 1:45am, Nigel Greenwood <ndsg_m...@yahoo.co.uk> wrote:
Quote: On Apr 28, 5:44am, mb <azyth...@gmail.com> wrote:
"*ho *Herakla / Herakla" is impossible; the definite article always
take the nominative.
This must be a typo: it's a bit meaningless as it stands! I think we
all understand what it means, though: ho is the nom. def. art & thus
always goes with a noun in the nom. case.
Thanks for completing the missing half of the telegraph... |
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| grapheus@www.com |
Posted: Tue Apr 29, 2008 2:46 am |
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On Apr 29, 2:15pm, mb <azyth...@gmail.com> wrote:
Quote: On Apr 29, 1:45am, Nigel Greenwood <ndsg_m...@yahoo.co.uk> wrote:
On Apr 28, 5:44am, mb <azyth...@gmail.com> wrote:
"*ho *Herakla / Herakla" is impossible; the definite article always
take the nominative.
This must be a typo: it's a bit meaningless as it stands! I think we
all understand what it means, though: ho is the nom. def. art & thus
always goes with a noun in the nom. case.
Thanks for completing the missing half of the telegraph...
The Californian kook is drunk again !.. As usual !..
Bumping his head against the telegraph's pole, he has confused
telegram and telegraph...
grapheus |
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| mb |
Posted: Tue Apr 29, 2008 3:30 am |
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On Apr 29, 5:46am, "graph...@www.com" <graph...@www.com>
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Quote: The Californian kook is drunk again !.. As usual !..
Bumping his head against the telegraph's pole, he has confused
telegram and telegraph...
And the nasty Ltzeburger mountebank has confused his bladder with his
lantern. Still unable to imagine that any language is not French. Et
un bonnet d'ne, un!
http://www.thefreedictionary.com/telegraph
By the way, still trying to teach proto-ionization without learning
Greek? |
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| grapheus@www.com |
Posted: Tue Apr 29, 2008 4:44 am |
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On Apr 29, 3:30pm, mb <azyth...@gmail.com> wrote:
Quote: On Apr 29, 5:46am, "graph...@www.com" <graph...@www.com
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The Californian kook is drunk again !.. As usual !..
Bumping his head against the telegraph's pole, he has confused
telegram and telegraph...
And the nasty Ltzeburger mountebank has confused his bladder with his
lantern. Still unable to imagine that any language is not French. Et
un bonnet d'ne, un!
Oh yes !.. I forgot that the ignorant Italo-Californian drunkard was
speaking Chicago slang !.. And that is reference was as academic as:
Quote: http://www.thefreedictionary.com/telegraph
grapheus |
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| grapheus@www.com |
Posted: Tue Apr 29, 2008 10:11 pm |
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On Apr 30, 5:51am, "Brian M. Scott" <b.sc...@csuohio.edu> wrote:
Quote: On Tue, 29 Apr 2008 20:19:09 -0700 (PDT), "Peter T. Daniels"
gramma...@verizon.net> wrote in
news:942b7c1a-35b0-4e60-8d63-8c0e918ca15b@c65g2000hsa.googlegroups.com
in sci.lang:
On Apr 29, 6:24pm, "graph...@www.com" <graph...@www.com> wrote:
On Apr 29, 10:15pm, "Peter T. Daniels" <gramma...@verizon.net> wrote:
On Apr 29, 3:38pm, "graph...@www.com" <graph...@www.com> wrote:
[...]
To the point that he doesn't know, for instance, that
"mountebank" is a Chicago slang word coming from
Italian "montimbanco" !!!!
Chicago was founded in 1833. The word is attested in
English in 1577. (Before Shakespeare!)
Reference, please !
Reference for what?? Any encyclopedia article on Chicago will give you
that date, and if M-W has a specific date for a word, the dated
quotation is very likely in OED.
Technically it's not a citation for <mountebank>, though it
implies the existence of the word:
1577 R. STANYHURST Descr. Ireland ii. f. 8/2, in R.
Holinshed Chron. I, He shoulde haue gone shotfree with
his complices, and haue made in Mounterbanckwyse the
most he coulde of his wares.
(Perhaps unsurprisingly, this is the *only* citation s.v.
mountebankwise>.) The first citation for the noun itself:
1582 G. WHETSTONE Heptameron Ciuill Disc. sig. Liiiv,
There mounted, a Mountebanke, his necke bechayned with
liue Adders, Snakes, Eau'ts,..whose mortall stinges were
taken away by Arte.
Brian
Thanks !
grapheus |
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