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Science Forum Index » Physics - Relativity Forum » The speed of gravity revisited
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| Eric Gisse |
Posted: Fri Apr 18, 2008 2:14 pm |
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On Apr 18, 8:18 am, Mike <elea...@yahoo.gr> wrote:
[snip]
GR makes plenty of quantitative predictions. Try opening a textbook or
doing a basic literature search. |
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| Prime Mover |
Posted: Fri Apr 18, 2008 5:35 pm |
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On 18 abr, 13:47, Mike <elea...@yahoo.gr> wrote:
Quote: There is nothing in Newton's laws (to which TVF adhers to) that
assigns a speed to force. In NM, force and acceleration are considered
instantenuous cause-effect relationship - or to be more precise, it is
a streched causality.
Well, instantaneous cause-effect can't exist in reality. It doesn't
matter whether this is a part of a theory or not. Theories often are
just oversimplifications of reality.
Quote: Only crackpots believe force is a real thing that has a speed, so much
for potential.
If a "force" is used to explain gravitational interactions, then it
must represent a real thing.
Quote:
As many published experiments have demonstrated, gravitational forces
can not possibly
propagate at c. I consider this as a scientific fact, indeed.
There is no propagation of gravitational forces in NM. The effect is
instantenuous,it's called action_at_a_distance. Where in the world and
from which crackpot did you hear that? Central forces in NM must apply
instantenuously and induce a centripetal acceleration to a body
instantenuously. There is no such thing as "speed of gravity" in
Newtonian mechanics.
Theories does not describe reality perfectly. While the mathematical
theory considers this to be instantaneuous, it does not mean that this
happens in reality.
Quote: In GR, there is also no such thing as "speed of gravity" because in GR
there is no gravity. Gravitational effects - something not equivalent
to gravity in the usual sense - are caused by spacetime curvature,
i.e. GR is a purely geometrical theory of gravitational effects -- and
dynamical motion in general.
This seems to be your interpreation of GR. By the way, you first say
that "there is no gravity" in GR and then, you finish saying that GR
is a theory of "gravitational effects". How can there exist
gravitational effects without gravity? |
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| Koobee Wublee |
Posted: Fri Apr 18, 2008 8:56 pm |
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On Apr 18, 4:09 pm, carlip-nos...@physics.ucdavis.edu wrote:
Quote: Tom Van Flandern <to...@metaresearch.org> wrote:
Playing with the definitions of words does no one trying to follow this
discussion any good. You avoid defining "gravitational influences" and just
cite a reference. However, no one is disputing that changes in gravitational
potential (the subject of the field equations) propagate at the speed of
light, c. I am always careful to state that "the speed of gravity" measured
by the six available experiments always means the 3-space propagation speed
of gravitational force, and has nothing to do with changes in gravitational
potential.
That's garbage, Tom.
I used the term "gravitational influence" simply to avoid getting into a
pointless debate about whether gravity in GR is "really" or force or not.
If you would go and read Low's paper, you would see that he is clearly
contradicting your claim.
Low’s paper is full of handwaving. Your proposal to nullify the speed
of gravity through aberration is even more faulty. As a scientist,
how can you live with that? Where is your ethics?
Quote: What Low shows is the following:
Let R be an arbitrary region in space (at a fixed time, say t=0) containing
some sources of gravitation. Let p be a point outside R, at a distance d
from R -- that is, for which the closest point in R is a distance d away.
At time t=0, change conditions in R any way you want -- move the masses
around, add more masses, take some away, anything at all, as long as you
don't change anything outside R. What happens at p? Low shows that it
is a clear, unequivocal, unambiguous prediction of GR that nothing
whatsoever changes at p until a time d/c has passed.
To repeat: change the source of gravity in R any way you want. According
to GR, nothing at all happens at a point p outside R until the time for a
light signal to reach p from R has passed. By any sensible definition of
"speed" I can imagine, that means that gravity propagates at the speed
of light.
What you are saying is equally valid for anything including Newton’s
law of gravity. It is an extension to the theory of non-causality.
<shrug>
Quote: If you accept this, then we are merely arguing over semantics (although I
would add that your definition of "speed of gravity" must be truly bizarre).
If you don't accept this, then you don't accept "the mathematics of GR."
Period.
If you accept there is no paradox in causality or in anything, a well
thought-out experiment would have no problem measuring the propagation
speed of gravitational effect. As Dr. Van Flandern has pointed out,
all indicate this speed to be magnitudes higher. If aberration does
not work for you, you must accept the experimental results which would
falsify GR in doing so. If not, you have no right to claim yourself a
physicist. <shrug>
You are guilty of
** MYSTICISM IS WIDSOM
** FAITH IS THEORY |
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| Androcles |
Posted: Fri Apr 18, 2008 11:54 pm |
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--
This message is brought to you by Androcles
http://www.androcles01.pwp.blueyonder.co.uk/
"Prime Mover" <epleite@hotmail.com> wrote in message
news:82592241-3d03-4ce7-a032-4b5abf00b0ea@y21g2000hsf.googlegroups.com...
| On 18 abr, 13:47, Mike <elea...@yahoo.gr> wrote:
| > There is nothing in Newton's laws (to which TVF adhers to) that
| > assigns a speed to force. In NM, force and acceleration are considered
| > instantenuous cause-effect relationship - or to be more precise, it is
| > a streched causality.
|
| Well, instantaneous cause-effect can't exist in reality.
You'll just disagree for the sake of it, even if you can't back that up.
You are a right fuckhead, aren't you?
Don't answer, I know you disagree.
*plonk* |
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| Mike |
Posted: Sat Apr 19, 2008 12:24 am |
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On Apr 18, 7:09 pm, carlip-nos...@physics.ucdavis.edu wrote:
Quote: Tom Van Flandern <to...@metaresearch.org> wrote:
[...]
[Carlip]: There is a rigorous proof, using the full Einstein field
equations (and not just a low-order approximation that can hide the
underlying structure), that gravitational influence propagates at the
speed of light
Playing with the definitions of words does no one trying to follow this
discussion any good. You avoid defining "gravitational influences" and just
cite a reference. However, no one is disputing that changes in gravitational
potential (the subject of the field equations) propagate at the speed of
light, c. I am always careful to state that "the speed of gravity" measured
by the six available experiments always means the 3-space propagation speed
of gravitational force, and has nothing to do with changes in gravitational
potential.
That's garbage, Tom.
I used the term "gravitational influence" simply to avoid getting into a
pointless debate about whether gravity in GR is "really" or force or not.
Gravity in GR in a form of "action", like in NM, does not exist.
Gravity in 3-D space + time, according to GR, is a perceived
phenomenon due to spacetime curvature. Notice the choice and ordering
of words. Gravity exists only in 3-D space and time. In GR, all there
is, is motion. Some of that motion, observers in 3-D space attribute
(right or wrongly) to grabitational forces.
Quote: If you would go and read Low's paper, you would see that he is clearly
contradicting your claim.
What Low shows is the following:
Let R be an arbitrary region in space (at a fixed time, say t=0) containing
some sources of gravitation. Let p be a point outside R, at a distance d
from R -- that is, for which the closest point in R is a distance d away.
At time t=0, change conditions in R any way you want -- move the masses
around, add more masses, take some away, anything at all, as long as you
don't change anything outside R. What happens at p? Low shows that it
is a clear, unequivocal, unambiguous prediction of GR that nothing
whatsoever changes at p until a time d/c has passed.
Correct. But you are talking in 4-D spacetime and the TFV team is
talking in 3-D space and time. You have no common ground. In the
former, it is d/c in the latter it is infinite.
Quote:
To repeat: change the source of gravity in R any way you want. According
to GR, nothing at all happens at a point p outside R until the time for a
light signal to reach p from R has passed. By any sensible definition of
"speed" I can imagine, that means that gravity propagates at the speed
of light.
No, now you show how confused you are also. Now, you used the word
"gravity" TVF and his team have the right to come back and attack you,
and you deserve it because you are as confused as you claim they are.
In GR, that is, it is not even wrong to say "gravity propagates". It
is so stupid, I can't even describe it. Say, information about the
change propagates at the speed of light.
If you say "gravity propagates", then TVF and his team are correct to
strike back anf say: "wait yo, gravity propagates at almost infinite
speeds"
Do you get it? How many years will pass before you get it?
Quote: If you accept this, then we are merely arguing over semantics (although I
would add that your definition of "speed of gravity" must be truly bizarre).
If you don't accept this, then you don't accept "the mathematics of GR."
Period.
Bizzare it is, because in NM there is no such thing as "speed of
gravity". Actions are instantenuous, there is nothing in Newton's law
that says force has a speed.
But you sound as bizzare, even more often. There is no speed of
gravity in GR because in that theory there is no gravity. GR is a
theory of dynamical motion in arbitrarily curved spacetimes. Mass-
energy curves 4-D sapcetime and in turn this curvature of spacetime
results in 4-D dyynamical motion. If we consider 3-D plus time, then
we can model gravity as mutual interaction as Newton argued.
Quote:
Then in Ref. [3], Vigier and I carefully showed exactly where in GR the
switch is made from the speed of changes in gravitational potential (c) to
the propagation speed of gravitational force (infinity).
No, you don't. You just demonstrate that you don't understand the math,
and that you don't know the difference between speed and direction.
[...]
Tha's a serious allegation.
Quote:
[Carlip]: If you really "agree[d] with GR as a mathematical theory," the
argument would be over.
Apparently, it would not, because I do agree with GR as a mathematical
theory, but have taken great pains to show (as others before me have done)
that the mathematical theory has more than one physical interpretation; and
that one of those interpretations (the "geometric") has now been falsified
in favor of another (the "field" interpretation). In short, GR as Einstein
taught it is just fine; but much of the post-Einstein evolution of GR has
been unproductive or outright wrong.
The issue has nothing to do with interpretation. Go *read* Low's paper
(better yet -- read it and try to actually understand it). The GR prediction
is unequivocal.
It has to do with interpretation as long it is demonstrated by your
posts that your interpretations are also wrong.
Mike
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| Mike |
Posted: Sat Apr 19, 2008 12:31 am |
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On Apr 19, 2:56 am, Koobee Wublee <koobee.wub...@gmail.com> wrote:
Quote: On Apr 18, 4:09 pm, carlip-nos...@physics.ucdavis.edu wrote:
Tom Van Flandern <to...@metaresearch.org> wrote:
Playing with the definitions of words does no one trying to follow this
discussion any good. You avoid defining "gravitational influences" and just
cite a reference. However, no one is disputing that changes in gravitational
potential (the subject of the field equations) propagate at the speed of
light, c. I am always careful to state that "the speed of gravity" measured
by the six available experiments always means the 3-space propagation speed
of gravitational force, and has nothing to do with changes in gravitational
potential.
That's garbage, Tom.
I used the term "gravitational influence" simply to avoid getting into a
pointless debate about whether gravity in GR is "really" or force or not..
If you would go and read Low's paper, you would see that he is clearly
contradicting your claim.
Low’s paper is full of handwaving. Your proposal to nullify the speed
of gravity through aberration is even more faulty. As a scientist,
how can you live with that? Where is your ethics?
What Low shows is the following:
Let R be an arbitrary region in space (at a fixed time, say t=0) containing
some sources of gravitation. Let p be a point outside R, at a distance d
from R -- that is, for which the closest point in R is a distance d away..
At time t=0, change conditions in R any way you want -- move the masses
around, add more masses, take some away, anything at all, as long as you
don't change anything outside R. What happens at p? Low shows that it
is a clear, unequivocal, unambiguous prediction of GR that nothing
whatsoever changes at p until a time d/c has passed.
To repeat: change the source of gravity in R any way you want. According
to GR, nothing at all happens at a point p outside R until the time for a
light signal to reach p from R has passed. By any sensible definition of
"speed" I can imagine, that means that gravity propagates at the speed
of light.
What you are saying is equally valid for anything including Newton’s
law of gravity. It is an extension to the theory of non-causality.
shrug
What in the world (to avoid a different expression) is "non-causality"
and what does it have to do with physics?
Quote:
If you accept this, then we are merely arguing over semantics (although I
would add that your definition of "speed of gravity" must be truly bizarre).
If you don't accept this, then you don't accept "the mathematics of GR."
Period.
If you accept there is no paradox in causality or in anything, a well
thought-out experiment would have no problem measuring the propagation
speed of gravitational effect. As Dr. Van Flandern has pointed out,
all indicate this speed to be magnitudes higher. If aberration does
not work for you, you must accept the experimental results which would
falsify GR in doing so. If not, you have no right to claim yourself a
physicist. <shrug
There are no "gravitational" effects in GR. Those are only present in
3-D space + time. In GR all there is, is dynamical motion.
Newton faked your brains forever.
Mike
Quote:
You are guilty of
** MYSTICISM IS WIDSOM
** FAITH IS THEORY- Hide quoted text -
- Show quoted text -- Hide quoted text -
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| Mike |
Posted: Sat Apr 19, 2008 12:56 am |
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Guest
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On Apr 19, 6:29 am, "Dirk Van de moortel" <dirkvandemoor...@ThankS-NO-
SperM.hotmail.com> wrote:
Hello psycho....long time no see. Are you still on meds? Still can't
get a job teaching high school physics?
Immortal fumbles by Dirt of ther Mootel:
http://groups.google.co.uk/group/sci.physics.relativity/msg/22f97e426496efb3
http://groups.google.gr/group/sci.physics.relativity/msg/415dc591b91cad72?dmode=source
The folowing is a gem:
http://groups.google.gr/group/sci.physics.relativity/msg/146912dbeef0d08b?dmode=source
That is currently examined by top psychiatrists around the world.
Now, ladies and gentlemen, heeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeereeeeeeeeeeee is Dork
in action, you know where? at alt.jokes, demonstrating his racist
nature:
http://groups.google.gr/group/alt.jokes/msg/abd6fadea0a31456?dmode=source
More funny, that was cross-posted by the idiot to:
alt.music.kylie.minogue
hahahahahahahahah
But hey, the man has class, he plays chess all day:
http://groups.google.gr/group/rec.puzzles/msg/19bebf2b4b47a83e?dmode=source
hahahahahahaha: rec.puzzles, rec.games.chess.computer
Mystery of the day: what do Erica Gissa and Dirt of ther Mootel have
in common?
I mean besides being the same person.
Mike |
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| Androcles |
Posted: Sat Apr 19, 2008 2:13 am |
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--
This message is brought to you by Androcles
http://www.androcles01.pwp.blueyonder.co.uk/
"Koobee Wublee" <koobee.wublee@gmail.com> wrote in message
news:b95f9ed3-4b91-4155-beee-43f9e6b3aa76@z24g2000prf.googlegroups.com...
On Apr 18, 4:09 pm, carlip-nos...@physics.ucdavis.edu wrote:
Quote: Tom Van Flandern <to...@metaresearch.org> wrote:
Playing with the definitions of words does no one trying to follow
this
discussion any good. You avoid defining "gravitational influences" and
just
cite a reference. However, no one is disputing that changes in
gravitational
potential (the subject of the field equations) propagate at the speed of
light, c.
Yes I do dispute it. Prove it. |
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| Eric Gisse |
Posted: Sat Apr 19, 2008 2:24 am |
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On Apr 19, 2:56 am, Mike <elea...@yahoo.gr> wrote:
[snip]
Quote: Mystery of the day: what do Erica Gissa and Dirt of ther Mootel have
in common?
I mean besides being the same person.
Another sad little person who doesn't understand the concept of
"headers" or how to use them.
I know what your response is going to be since I haven't seen you give
me another yet. Don't disappoint me.
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| Juan R." González-Álvarez |
Posted: Sat Apr 19, 2008 3:31 am |
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carlip-nospam wrote on Fri, 18 Apr 2008 23:09:19 +0000:
Quote: That's garbage, Tom.
It is language of this kind which raised you to be cited like academic
flamer in several dictionaries and encyclopedias dealing with flames.
Quote: I used the term "gravitational influence" simply to avoid getting into a
pointless debate about whether gravity in GR is "really" or force or
not.
But still your claims about "gravitational influence" are completely
wrong.
Quote: What Low shows is the following:
Let R be an arbitrary region in space (at a fixed time, say t=0)
containing some sources of gravitation. Let p be a point outside R, at
a distance d from R -- that is, for which the closest point in R is a
distance d away.
At time t=0, change conditions in R any way you want -- move the masses
around, add more masses, take some away, anything at all, as long as you
don't change anything outside R. What happens at p? Low shows that it
is a clear, unequivocal, unambiguous prediction of GR that nothing
whatsoever changes at p until a time d/c has passed.
Fine. But as said this does *not* prove that "gravitational influences"
are limited to c.
As stated during a early message that kind of theorems are *only* valid
for the local time explicit potentials (or related metrics g_ab if you
prefer the geometrical approach to GR).
Once you introduce the non-local time implicit component (MISSED in the
geometric approach to GR), the conclusion is that there exists no
retardation time d/c, but "gravitational influence" are detected at
arbitrary point p at *exactly* time t=0.
Very rigorous mathematical description of this instantaneous interaction
for "electrodynamical influence" has been proved using Maxwell equations
in recent papers:
Action at a distance as a full-value solution of Maxwell equations: The
basis and application of the separated-potentials method. 1996: Phys.
Rev. E 53, 5373. Chubykalo, Andrew E; Smirnov-Rueda, Roman.
Erratum: Action at a distance as a full-value solution of Maxwell
equations: The basis and application of the separated-potentials method
[Phys. Rev. E 53, 5373 (1996)] 1997: Phys. Rev. E 55, 3793. Chubykalo,
Andrew E; Smirnov-Rueda, Roman.
Necessity of simultaneous co-existence of instantaneous and retarded
interactions in classical electrodynamics. 1999:
Int. J. of Mod. Phys. A 14(24), 3789. Chubykalo, Andrew E; Vlaev, Stoyan
J.
With purely mathematical papers also published elsewhere.
I have generalized those results to gravitation in two papers i am
writing.
I use a Liouville space extension of dynamics for delineating the
specific range of validity of theorems as that by Low.
Those theorems *and geometric GR* are only valid for first order [}
classical bracket [#] in the pure-state approximation with no correlation
SIGMA = PROD DELTA.
Those recent findings about speed of interactions have been also verified
by different researchers using QED and alternative descriptions.
The conclusion is always the same:
{STATEMENT
The speed of gravitational and electromagnetic influences is not
retarded by c but both contain an *instantaneous* component.
}
I will discuss in both sci.physics.research and sci.physics.foundations
in brief.
Quote: To repeat: change the source of gravity in R any way you want.
According to GR, nothing at all happens at a point p outside R until the
time for a light signal to reach p from R has passed. By any sensible
definition of "speed" I can imagine, that means that gravity propagates
at the speed of light.
But your *repeated* confusion [##] is that only applies to *geometric GR*
which uses g_ab = g_ab(x,t) and not to *gravity* as we understand the
concept in a more *general* approach.
Actually, your papers about 'speeds' as that on PLA (Aberration...) have
no validity and may be just ignored.
[#] I.e. first order in the interaction Liouvillian L_V with Balescu
Prigogine diagram
__1
1__/
\__2
[##] Repeating a mistake during years do not transform it into right.
--
http://canonicalscience.org/en/miscellaneouszone/guidelines.txt |
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| Mike |
Posted: Sat Apr 19, 2008 4:26 am |
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On Apr 19, 8:24 am, Eric Gisse <jowr...@gmail.com> wrote:
Quote: On Apr 19, 2:56 am, Mike <elea...@yahoo.gr> wrote:
[snip]
Mystery of the day: what do Erica Gissa and Dirt of ther Mootel have
in common?
I mean besides being the same person.
Another sad little person who doesn't understand the concept of
"headers" or how to use them.
You know my response:
http://groups.google.gr/group/sci.physics.relativity/msg/dd24a9cdf16c4daf
You do not know the difference between an ODE and a mom-linear DE.
Moreover, that you think the free-fall equation is an ODE and that you
are " bored, walking to the toilet and peeing takes longer, and
required the same amount of mental horsepower."
I guess the only use of your mental horse power is for going to the
toilet. You said it, not me.
Mike
Quote: I know what your response is going to be since I haven't seen you give
me another yet. Don't disappoint me.
Mike- Hide quoted text -
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| Mike |
Posted: Sat Apr 19, 2008 4:29 am |
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Guest
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On Apr 19, 10:26 am, Mike <elea...@yahoo.gr> wrote:
Quote: On Apr 19, 8:24 am, Eric Gisse <jowr...@gmail.com> wrote:
On Apr 19, 2:56 am, Mike <elea...@yahoo.gr> wrote:
[snip]
Mystery of the day: what do Erica Gissa and Dirt of ther Mootel have
in common?
I mean besides being the same person.
Another sad little person who doesn't understand the concept of
"headers" or how to use them.
You know my response:
http://groups.google.gr/group/sci.physics.relativity/msg/dd24a9cdf16c...
You do not know the difference between an ODE and a mom-linear DE.
Moreover, that you think the free-fall equation is an ODE and that you
are " bored, walking to the toilet and peeing takes longer, and
required the same amount of mental horsepower."
I guess I was right, you are missing a "mom-linear DE", not a non-
liner DE I intended to say.
hahahahahaha
Mike
Quote:
I guess the only use of your mental horse power is for going to the
toilet. You said it, not me.
Mike
I know what your response is going to be since I haven't seen you give
me another yet. Don't disappoint me.
Mike- Hide quoted text -
- Show quoted text -- Hide quoted text -
- Show quoted text - |
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| Dirk Van de moortel |
Posted: Sat Apr 19, 2008 5:29 am |
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Guest
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Mike eleatis@yahoo.gr
aka Bill Smith
aka Undeniable
wrote in message
fffc4b3e-a99e-4ad7-b99a-83aef979afe4@a23g2000hsc.googlegroups.com
Quote: On Apr 18, 7:09 pm, carlip-nos...@physics.ucdavis.edu wrote:
Tom Van Flandern <to...@metaresearch.org> wrote:
[...]
[Carlip]: There is a rigorous proof, using the full Einstein field
equations (and not just a low-order approximation that can hide the
underlying structure), that gravitational influence propagates at the
speed of light
Playing with the definitions of words does no one trying to follow this
discussion any good. You avoid defining "gravitational influences" and just
cite a reference. However, no one is disputing that changes in gravitational
potential (the subject of the field equations) propagate at the speed of
light, c. I am always careful to state that "the speed of gravity" measured
by the six available experiments always means the 3-space propagation speed
of gravitational force, and has nothing to do with changes in gravitational
potential.
That's garbage, Tom.
I used the term "gravitational influence" simply to avoid getting into a
pointless debate about whether gravity in GR is "really" or force or not.
Gravity in GR in a form of "action", like in NM, does not exist.
Gravity in 3-D space + time, according to GR, is a perceived
phenomenon due to spacetime curvature. Notice the choice and ordering
of words. Gravity exists only in 3-D space and time. In GR, all there
is, is motion. Some of that motion, observers in 3-D space attribute
(right or wrongly) to grabitational forces.
If you would go and read Low's paper, you would see that he is clearly
contradicting your claim.
What Low shows is the following:
Let R be an arbitrary region in space (at a fixed time, say t=0) containing
some sources of gravitation. Let p be a point outside R, at a distance d
from R -- that is, for which the closest point in R is a distance d away.
At time t=0, change conditions in R any way you want -- move the masses
around, add more masses, take some away, anything at all, as long as you
don't change anything outside R. What happens at p? Low shows that it
is a clear, unequivocal, unambiguous prediction of GR that nothing
whatsoever changes at p until a time d/c has passed.
Correct. But you are talking in 4-D spacetime and the TFV team is
talking in 3-D space and time. You have no common ground. In the
former, it is d/c in the latter it is infinite.
Mike, aka Eleatis aka Bill Smith aka Undeniable, were you born an idiot?
http://users.telenet.be/vdmoortel/dirk/Physics/Fumbles/StudyReason.html
http://users.telenet.be/vdmoortel/dirk/Physics/Fumbles/AndroclesTeach.html
http://users.telenet.be/vdmoortel/dirk/Physics/Fumbles/Physics101quater.html
http://users.telenet.be/vdmoortel/dirk/Physics/Fumbles/Physics101ter.html
http://users.telenet.be/vdmoortel/dirk/Physics/Fumbles/Physics101bis.html
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| Tom Van Flandern |
Posted: Mon Apr 21, 2008 1:17 pm |
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This replies to Koobee Wublee, Tom Roberts, and Steve Carlip.
"Koobee Wublee" writes:
Quote: [Wublee]: As you have correctly pointed out, LR does not manifest the
twin's paradox. However, it manifests the time dilation.
You have not understood Lorentzian relativity (LR). See Ref. [1] below.
The effect of velocity on clocks represented by the Lorentz transformations
is extremely well-verified by GPS, among many other modern experiments. But
in LR, the transformations operate in only one direction, from the local
gravitational potential field to the moving frame. They do not work in
reverse.
The significance of that difference is that velocity affects only the
rates of *clocks* moving relative to the local gravitational potential
field. Motion has no effect on *time* (the dimension for measuring change).
So LR has no time dilation and no paradoxes. Motion simply makes atomic
clocks slow down, the way increasing temperature makes pendulum clocks slow
down.
That said, LR agrees with all 11 independent experiments that tested
special relativity (SR) [see Ref. 6 for list], and can also accept gravity
propagating faster than light, which SR cannot do.
You also seem to object to general relativity (GR), another
well-verified theory. But once you realize that the math has more than one
interpretation, and that the "field interpretation" requires no "curved
space-time" or other forms of magic, you will find GR much more acceptable.
Most of what is important about GR can be understood in the context of a
light-carrying medium. (Any wave phenomenon requires a medium.) That medium
is like an atmosphere filling space. Naturally, the gravity of large masses
makes the medium denser as one gets closer, just as it would for an
atmosphere comprised of gases. Then as light tries to propagate through a
medium with a density gradient, it bends, slows, and redshifts by ordinary,
classical refraction in the exact amount the GR equations predict.
Moreover, this interpretation has been known for a long time, back to at
least Eddington's 1920 book. See Ref. [2]. A review of the "refraction in an
optical medium" model as a simple replacement for Riemann curvature of
spacetime, together with citations to many previous authors who knew about
this, may be found in Ref. [3].
and "Tom Roberts" writes:
Quote: [Prime Mover]: As many published experiments have demonstrated,
gravitational forces cannot possibly propagate at c.
[Roberts]: True, _IF_AND_ONLY_IF_ one assumes that they propagate at all.
With the standard classical physics definition of "force" = the time
rate of change of (3-space) momentum, it instantly follows that orbiting
bodies are experiencing a force by definition. With the further caveat that
no magic is allowed in physics, then it follows that the (3-space) momentum
transferred to the target body by the force must be the force's own
momentum. But the force could not have momentum unless it was propagating.
Therefore, gravitational force must propagate. Q.E.D.
The "geometric interpretation" of GR gets around this by changing the
definition of "force" and arguing that the new momentum of orbiting target
bodies can arise spontaneously from nothing. That is acceptable only to the
extent that one is willing to base physics on magic.
Quote: [Roberts]: In GR, the gravitational fields "here and now" do not propagate
from any source "over there". The fields "here and now" depend ONLY on the
fields "right near here a short time ago". So there is no need for
propagation from a source.
That claim is factually in error. Ref. [4] proves that the acceleration
of a source mass (as in a binary pulsar) is felt by a target body in much
less than the light-time between the two stars. Many people have examined
this proof in the standard literature and no actual or suspected fault has
appeared.
Just as you and others had to give up on the naïve notion that the
gravitational force between two bodies might propagate at the speed of
light, you must also give up the notion that the gravitational field is
projected one light-time ahead along the velocity vector (as is claimed
about charge fields), because that still gives orbits that spiral outward.
Because you seem disinclined to check the proof for yourself, take note that
relativity experts such as Steve Carlip do not dispute this, and accept that
your understanding of relativity is incomplete in this important way.
Quote: [Prime Mover]: As Tom Van Flandern has said, gravitational potential and
gravitational force are two distinct concepts and as such their speeds
does not have to be the same.
[Roberts]: I disagree. If "gravitational force" is to be the spatial
gradient of "gravitational potential", then they cannot have different
"propagation
speeds".
The gravitational potential field can be thought of as an optical
medium. Disturbances in it propagate at the speed of light. But forces
applied to it, including forces that create a gradient in it, can have any
speed. The connection you imagine does not exist.
Consider the gradient of air in Earth's atmosphere. The force creating
that gradient is gravity. Disturbances in the gradient (such as winds or
sound waves) propagate at speeds that have nothing to do with the speed of
gravity. Yet air is analogous to the gravitational potential field, which is
likewise shaped by gravitational forces. So the speeds of potential changes
and of gravitational forces are unrelated.
Quote: [Roberts]: When different people use different meanings of words, the
discussion can extend forever, as they talk right past each other. TVF
seems to be incapable of recognizing the puns he uses, even when pointed
out to him, so he repeats his same invalid claims.
I carefully define my terms to avoid ambiguity. What do you do?
Quote: [Prime Mover]: By the way, I read his papers on the subject and I saw no
apparent fraud, quite the contrary. They were fairly conducted, in my
opinion.
[Roberts]: Including his nonsense about Cydonia? Any "astronomer" who
writes such drivel is not trustworthy in my book. I don't mean the fact
that he is demonstrably wrong, for that can happen to anybody -- I mean
the fact that he claims "proof", and was as strident in claiming that as
he is
"speed of gravity".
That cannot be relevant unless there is a flaw in either argument that
might apply to the other. If you cannot see or even imagine a flaw in the
reasoning, and are left with nothing but ad hominem arguments ("such
drivel"), you must decide whether you are a scientist or a "believer at any
cost".
I belong to an organization that looks into puzzles and anomalies, helps
to eliminate most of them, and focuses on those that remain standing as the
areas for potential breakthroughs in physics/astronomy. So it is no
coincidence that our rigorous standards have been applied to numerous
unrelated anomalies. Although most have mundane explanations,
unsurprisingly, more than one has survived this scrutiny.
But there is a definite and obvious logical flaw in your linkage of
unrelated anomalies as if the probabilities in one case affected
probabilities in the other. So if you cannot justify your claim that one
case is "obvious drivel", or even articulate why you think that, then you
are exposed as a believer posing as a scientist.
Quote: [Albertito]: It is very easy to measure the gravitational force. You can
measure a force F, if you know the mass of the body and the acceleration
that force exerts on that body.
[Roberts]: That is a measurement of the acceleration, not the force.
You are ignoring definitions again. "Force" in this discussion is the time
rate of change of (3-space) momentum. "Momentum" is mass times velocity. For
constant mass, the time rate of change of momentum is mass times
acceleration, a.k.a. Newton's second law of motion. That is a perfectly
valid way of measuring "force" by its standard definition. Only when you
change the definition, as in geometric GR, is the force concept suppressed
and we would have no means of measuring a true force.
This discussion is about real classical forces operating in Euclidian
flat space, where the observations and orbit computations used to test the
theories are made. Deal with it, if you are able.
and Steve Carlip writes:
Quote: [Tom VF]: no one is disputing that changes in gravitational potential
(the subject of the field equations) propagate at the speed of light, c.
I am always careful to state that "the speed of gravity" measured by the
six available experiments always means the 3-space propagation speed of
gravitational force, and has nothing to do with changes in gravitational
potential.
[Carlip, summarizing Low's paper]: change the source of gravity in R any
way you want. According to GR, nothing at all happens at a point p outside
R until the time for a light signal to reach p from R has passed. By any
sensible definition of "speed" I can imagine, that means that gravity
propagates at the speed of light.
I agree completely with Low's mathematical reasoning that you summarize
here, and have never claimed anything different from that. I must also agree
that your imagination is limited just as you describe. Indeed, what you
describe is nothing more than a wordy description of the retarded potential
field in GR, similar to the Lienard-Wiechert potentials. See Ref. [5]. In
fact, I just conceded the very point you made in my remarks above that you
quoted. Yet you make a big deal about an obvious point that is totally
irrelevant to this discussion or to the "speed of gravity" issue in general.
I have no issue with the speed of gravitational potential field updates
being c.
Now, consider the 2-body problem with one source mass and one (nearly)
massless target body. By construction, the source mass represents Low's R, a
collection of smaller masses that are the source of a gravitational
potential field. We all agree that changes in the potential field propagate
or update at speed c. So there is no issue there. Now let's look at the
gravitational force generated outside R, assuming R is a single, fixed
mass - the simplest case. Even with nothing changing at the field source, we
still have a problem about the force applied to the target body.
The one and only mathematical question of importance here to the speed
of gravity issue is this: For a target body with a transverse motion
relative to the source mass, should we use the retarded gradient or the
instantaneous gradient to get the force? (Here again I stress that the
"force" applied to the target body means the time rate of change of its
3-space momentum. And there can be no dispute that the 3-space momentum of
target bodies in a gravitational field is changing, so a force exists by
definition.)
If this force, or "gravitational influences" (your term), propagates
from source mass to target body at speed c, then we must use the retarded
gradient, which leads to wrong answers (outward spiraling orbits). If
force/gravitational influences propagate >> c, as in GR, then we get the
correct orbits.
I have read all the papers you have cited over the years, and read them
with understanding. Please do me the courtesy of reading my papers, which
have corrected your consistent misunderstanding of the issue. If you had
ever computed a real orbit in an n-body simulation, it would be obvious even
to someone taught only the geometric interpretation of GR that perturbing
forces must be applied to all n bodies instantaneously, without light-time
delay. And the reason for that is a physics issue deserving attention and
crying out for an explanation.
Quote: [Carlip]: If you accept this, then we are merely arguing over semantics
...
If you consider the physics question of whether or not "gravitational
influences" propagate FTL to be a semantic one, then you are entitled to
your opinion. Nonetheless, the main gravitational influence, the force that
keeps planets in their orbits around the Sun, must propagate much faster
than the speed of light, according to all experiments sensitive to that
speed.
Quote: [Carlip]: You just demonstrate that you don't understand the math,
and that you don't know the difference between speed and direction.
That is a non-sequitur and is patronizing in the extreme. And typical of
this "hit and run" tactic, you provide no explanation or specifics, so no
readers can judge the worth of your claim for themselves. -|Tom|-
REFERENCES:
[1] "Is faster-than-light propagation allowed by the laws of physics? (A
primer on Lorentzian relativity)", Infinite Energy 59, 31-33 (2005); also at
http://metaresearch.org/cosmology/gravity/LR.asp.
[2] Sir Arthur Eddington, "Space, Time & Gravitation", Cambridge Univ.
Press, first published 1920, reprinted 1987, p. 109.
[3] Fernando de Felice, "On the gravitational field acting as an optical
medium", Gen.Rel.&Grav. 2#4:347-357 (1971). Einstein himself first suggested
the idea that gravitation is equivalent to an optical medium. From the paper's
abstract, ". Maxwell's equations may be written as if they were valid in a
flat space-time in which there is an optical medium . this medium turns out
to be equivalent to the gravitational field. . we find that the language of
classical optics for the 'equivalent medium' is as suitable as that of
Riemannian geometry."
[4] "The speed of gravity - What the experiments say", Phys.Lett.A 250:1-11
(1998); also at http://metaresearch.org/cosmology/speed_of_gravity.asp. The
cited proof appears in the section "Electromagnetic Analogies and
Gravitational Radiation / 1. Myth: Gravity from an accelerating source
experiences light-time delay".
[5] Misner, Thorne & Wheeler, "Gravitation", Freeman & Co., p. 1080 (1973).
[6] "What the GPS tells us about relativity" in "Open Questions in
Relativistic Physics", F. Selleri, ed., Apeiron, Montreal, pp. 81-90 (1998);
also at http://metaresearch.org/cosmology/gps-relativity.asp.
Tom Van Flandern - Sequim, WA - see our web site on frontier astronomy
research at http://metaresearch.org |
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| Mike |
Posted: Mon Apr 21, 2008 1:19 pm |
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On Apr 21, 2:17 pm, "Tom Van Flandern" <to...@metaresearch.org> wrote:
Quote: If this force, or "gravitational influences" (your term), propagates
from source mass to target body at speed c, then we must use the retarded
gradient, which leads to wrong answers (outward spiraling orbits). If
force/gravitational influences propagate >> c, as in GR, then we get the
correct orbits.
There is nothing in Newton's law, F = dp/dt, that says forces
propagate at any speed.
Newton's law, as understood by him and many others, is a case of
streched causality, meaning instantenuous cause-effect relationship.
This has nothing to do with magic, as you constantly say, it is a mere
model of physical situations. It works well!
You keep talking about "speed of gravity" but you never justified why
gravity must have a speed in the first place. Your red herring has a
sole purpose. Your material gravitons you preach must move at finite
FTL speeds and impart momentum to celestal bodies. That is the reason,
you claim gravity must have a speed.
However, to support your red herring, you must first prove gravity
works like that. If someone does not believe it does, i.e. bodies in
the universe are immersed in a material flux of minute particles
moving at FTL speeds, which is the theory you preach, then
action_at_a_distance is sufficient for NM for all practical purposes
and v(g) >> c is just a red herring, but it does not even make sense.
Neither in GR the term "speed of gravity" makes snay sense, you have
managed to entrap many people in a sensless debate, and even run
experiments. in GR there is no gravity in the Newtonian sense, and I
start getting the impression you confuse the two for whatever reason
you only know. In GR, there is only motion, induced by curvature of
spacetime due to the presence of mass-energy distribution, and vice
versa. It is just a clever model. No connection to reality
necessarily.
No, I'm not buying into your "speed of gravity" bubble. I am sorry
many others have. There is no such thing as "speed of gravity". We do
not even know what gravity is.
Mike |
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