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curious
Posted: Sun Dec 21, 2003 2:41 pm
Guest
In algebraic number theory, the common definition of prime elements is this:

Definition 1. Let R be a commutative ring. An element p of R is prime if
p is not a unit and the following is true: If a and b are elements of R
such that p = ab, then a or b is a unit.

In his "Commutative Algebra", D. Eisenbud has another definition:

Definition 2. Let R be a commutative ring. An element p of R is prime if
p is not a unit and the following is true: If a and b are elements of R
such that p divides ab, then p divides a or b.

Is Definition 2 common in the commutative algebra community? And if yes,
are there good reasons why that community uses Definition 2 instead of 1?

Cur
Arturo Magidin
Posted: Sun Dec 21, 2003 2:41 pm
Guest
In article <XEmFb.1061$d%1.280494@news20.bellglobal.com>,
curious <cur@curio.us> wrote:
Quote:
In algebraic number theory, the common definition of prime elements is this:

Definition 1. Let R be a commutative ring. An element p of R is prime if
p is not a unit and the following is true: If a and b are elements of R
such that p = ab, then a or b is a unit.

Actually, this is the usual definition of "irreducible", not of
prime.

Quote:
In his "Commutative Algebra", D. Eisenbud has another definition:

Definition 2. Let R be a commutative ring. An element p of R is prime if
p is not a unit and the following is true: If a and b are elements of R
such that p divides ab, then p divides a or b.

Is Definition 2 common in the commutative algebra community?

It is common in algebraic number theory as well.

Quote:
And if yes,
are there good reasons why that community uses Definition 2 instead of 1?

Yes, there is an excellent reason: an element p generates a prime
ideal if and only if it satisfies definition 2; but there are, in many
number fields, elements that satisfy definition 1 but do not generate
prime ideals. E.g., 2 in Z[sqrt(-5)].

I think that the "usual" definition in algebraic number theory is
the one you give as "Def. 2". Definition 1 is equivalent to Def. 2 in
a UFD, such as the integers, but it is not equivalent in most domains
that show up in algebraic number theory.

Do you have any reference for an algebraic number theory text that
gives Definition 1?

--
======================================================================
"It's not denial. I'm just very selective about
what I accept as reality."
--- Calvin ("Calvin and Hobbes")
======================================================================

Arturo Magidin
magidin@math.berkeley.edu
David W. Cantrell
Posted: Sun Dec 21, 2003 6:27 pm
Guest
magidin@math.berkeley.edu (Arturo Magidin) wrote:
Quote:
In article <XEmFb.1061$d%1.280494@news20.bellglobal.com>,
curious <cur@curio.us> wrote:
[snip]
In his "Commutative Algebra", D. Eisenbud has another definition:

Definition 2. Let R be a commutative ring. An element p of R is prime if
p is not a unit and the following is true: If a and b are elements of
R such that p divides ab, then p divides a or b.

Is Definition 2 common in the commutative algebra community?

It is common in algebraic number theory as well.

Then I must wonder what the common definition of "divides" is. According to
the definition which I typically use, 0 divides 0. And then according to
Definition 2, we would have 0 being a prime, which surely we don't want.

Shouldn't Definition 2 explicitly state that p is to be nonzero?

David
curious
Posted: Sun Dec 21, 2003 9:16 pm
Guest
Arturo Magidin wrote:
Quote:
In article <XEmFb.1061$d%1.280494@news20.bellglobal.com>, curious
cur@curio.us> wrote:

In algebraic number theory, the common definition of prime elements
is this:

Definition 1. Let R be a commutative ring. An element p of R is
prime if p is not a unit and the following is true: If a and b are
elements of R such that p = ab, then a or b is a unit.

Actually, this is the usual definition of "irreducible", not of
prime.

[ snip ]

Do you have any reference for an algebraic number theory text that
gives Definition 1?


Pollard and Diamond in "The theory of algebraic numbers", Chapter VII,
deal with the ring of integers in an algebraic number field K, and define:
alpha is a prime if it is not zero or a unit, and if any factorization
alpha = beta gamma into integers of K implies that either beta or gamma
is a unit.
Guest
Posted: Sun Dec 21, 2003 11:09 pm
In article <bs58rr$21qg$1@agate.berkeley.edu>,
magidin@math.berkeley.edu (Arturo Magidin) writes:
Quote:
In article <XEmFb.1061$d%1.280494@news20.bellglobal.com>,
curious <cur@curio.us> wrote:
In algebraic number theory, the common definition of prime elements is this:

Definition 1. Let R be a commutative ring. An element p of R is prime if
p is not a unit and the following is true: If a and b are elements of R
such that p = ab, then a or b is a unit.

Actually, this is the usual definition of "irreducible", not of
prime.

In his "Commutative Algebra", D. Eisenbud has another definition:

Definition 2. Let R be a commutative ring. An element p of R is prime if
p is not a unit and the following is true: If a and b are elements of R
such that p divides ab, then p divides a or b.

Is Definition 2 common in the commutative algebra community?

It is common in algebraic number theory as well.

And if yes,
are there good reasons why that community uses Definition 2 instead of 1?

Yes, there is an excellent reason: an element p generates a prime
ideal if and only if it satisfies definition 2; but there are, in many
number fields, elements that satisfy definition 1 but do not generate
prime ideals. E.g., 2 in Z[sqrt(-5)].

As somebody else observed, both primes and irreducibles are required
to be non-zero.

It should also be noted that, in any integral domain, Definition 2 (prime)
implies Definition 1 (irreducible). Proof is easy.

Derek Holt.

Quote:
I think that the "usual" definition in algebraic number theory is
the one you give as "Def. 2". Definition 1 is equivalent to Def. 2 in
a UFD, such as the integers, but it is not equivalent in most domains
that show up in algebraic number theory.

Do you have any reference for an algebraic number theory text that
gives Definition 1?

--
======================================================================
"It's not denial. I'm just very selective about
what I accept as reality."
--- Calvin ("Calvin and Hobbes")
======================================================================

Arturo Magidin
magidin@math.berkeley.edu
curious
Posted: Mon Dec 22, 2003 9:36 am
Guest
mareg@mimosa.csv.warwick.ac.uk wrote:
Quote:
[ ... ]


As somebody else observed, both primes and irreducibles are required
to be non-zero.


Not in Eisenbud's "Commutative ALgebra".
curious
Posted: Mon Dec 22, 2003 9:41 am
Guest
curious wrote:

Quote:

Arturo Magidin wrote:

In article <XEmFb.1061$d%1.280494@news20.bellglobal.com>, curious
cur@curio.us> wrote:

In algebraic number theory, the common definition of prime elements
is this:

Definition 1. Let R be a commutative ring. An element p of R is
prime if p is not a unit and the following is true: If a and b are
elements of R such that p = ab, then a or b is a unit.


Actually, this is the usual definition of "irreducible", not of prime.

[ snip ]

Do you have any reference for an algebraic number theory text that
gives Definition 1?


Pollard and Diamond in "The theory of algebraic numbers", Chapter VII,
deal with the ring of integers in an algebraic number field K, and define:
alpha is a prime if it is not zero or a unit, and if any factorization
alpha = beta gamma into integers of K implies that either beta or gamma
is a unit.


And Paul Garrett's "Introduction to Abstract Algebra", page 106
http://www.math.umn.edu/~garrett/m/intro_algebra/notes.pdf
Arturo Magidin
Posted: Mon Dec 22, 2003 9:48 am
Guest
In article <yrsFb.2174$d%1.467491@news20.bellglobal.com>,
curious <cur@curio.us> wrote:
Quote:

Arturo Magidin wrote:
In article <XEmFb.1061$d%1.280494@news20.bellglobal.com>, curious
cur@curio.us> wrote:

In algebraic number theory, the common definition of prime elements
is this:

Definition 1. Let R be a commutative ring. An element p of R is
prime if p is not a unit and the following is true: If a and b are
elements of R such that p = ab, then a or b is a unit.

Actually, this is the usual definition of "irreducible", not of
prime.

[ snip ]

Do you have any reference for an algebraic number theory text that
gives Definition 1?


Pollard and Diamond in "The theory of algebraic numbers", Chapter VII,
deal with the ring of integers in an algebraic number field K, and define:
alpha is a prime if it is not zero or a unit, and if any factorization
alpha = beta gamma into integers of K implies that either beta or gamma
is a unit.

Well, I'm surprised, for sure. That is simply not the definition of
prime I have encountered in most algebraic number theory books. It is
the definition of "irreducible", which in a UFD is equivalent to the
definition of "prime".

--
======================================================================
"It's not denial. I'm just very selective about
what I accept as reality."
--- Calvin ("Calvin and Hobbes")
======================================================================

Arturo Magidin
magidin@math.berkeley.edu
Arturo Magidin
Posted: Mon Dec 22, 2003 9:49 am
Guest
In article <rmDFb.2895$d%1.747428@news20.bellglobal.com>,
curious <cur@curio.us> wrote:

[.snip.]

Quote:
Actually, this is the usual definition of "irreducible", not of prime.

[ snip ]

Do you have any reference for an algebraic number theory text that
gives Definition 1?

And Paul Garrett's "Introduction to Abstract Algebra", page 106
http://www.math.umn.edu/~garrett/m/intro_algebra/notes.pdf

Your first reply certainly fit the bill, but this one does
not. "Introduction to Abstract Algebra" is not a text for algebraic
number theory, so variations are to be expected.

--
======================================================================
"It's not denial. I'm just very selective about
what I accept as reality."
--- Calvin ("Calvin and Hobbes")
======================================================================

Arturo Magidin
magidin@math.berkeley.edu
David W. Cantrell
Posted: Mon Dec 22, 2003 10:09 am
Guest
curious <cur@curio.us> wrote:
Quote:
mareg@mimosa.csv.warwick.ac.uk wrote:
[ ... ]


As somebody else observed, both primes and irreducibles are required
to be non-zero.


Not in Eisenbud's "Commutative ALgebra".

That's why I had phrased my response as I did. I didn't necessarily suppose
either that you had misquoted his definition or that his definition was
incorrect. But then surely his definition of "divides" must be different
from the one I normally use, according to which 0 divides 0.

David
Dave Seaman
Posted: Mon Dec 22, 2003 1:19 pm
Guest
On 22 Dec 2003 14:39:11 -0800, Theo wrote:
Quote:
Definition 1. Let R be a commutative ring. An element p of R is prime if
p is not a unit and the following is true: If a and b are elements of R
such that p = ab, then a or b is a unit.

Should there also be the condition that both a and b cannot be a unit?

It already says that. If a and b are units, then their product p = ab is
also a unit, which is not allowed.


--
Dave Seaman
Judge Yohn's mistakes revealed in Mumia Abu-Jamal ruling.
<http://www.commoncouragepress.com/index.cfm?action=book&bookid=228>
Theo
Posted: Mon Dec 22, 2003 5:39 pm
Guest
Quote:
Definition 1. Let R be a commutative ring. An element p of R is prime if
p is not a unit and the following is true: If a and b are elements of R
such that p = ab, then a or b is a unit.

Should there also be the condition that both a and b cannot be a unit?
Bill Dubuque
Posted: Wed Dec 24, 2003 3:12 am
Guest
Arturo Magidin <magidin@math.berkeley.edu> wrote:
Quote:

but there are, in many number fields, elements that
[are irreducible but not prime]. E.g., 2 in Z[sqrt(-5)].

There are simpler examples of a non-prime irreducible.

Let J < Q[x] be the ring of integer-valued polys: f(Z) < Z.
In J the irred 2|x(x+1) but neither 2|x nor 2|x+1.

Let T = R + x C[x] be the ring of polynomials in x
with complex coefs and with real constant coef.

In T, x is irred: x = fg => f or g of deg 0 so a unit

and x|(ix)^2 but not x|ix, so x isn't prime.

More generally let R < T be a ring extension with new unit
u in T\R. In R + x T[x]: x|(ux)(x/u) but neither factor.

E.g. Z + x Q[x], u = 2/3; note this ring lies between two
UFDs Z[x], Q[x] but isn't a UFD since irred x isn't prime,
or, explicitly: x x = ux x/u is a nonunique factorization.

Rings of this form are a rich source of (counter-) examples,
e.g. see [1] for a survey. Alternatively one may construct
a generic counterexample along the lines of my prior post [2].

-Bill Dubuque

[1] Muhammad Zafrullah, Various Facets of Rings between D[X] and K[X]
http://www.lohar.com/researchpdf/axbx.pdf

[2] http://google.com/groups?threadm=y8zznru8v1d.fsf%40nestle.ai.mit.edu
Arturo Magidin
Posted: Wed Dec 24, 2003 7:44 am
Guest
In article <eShGb.10097$d%1.2033667@news20.bellglobal.com>,
curious <cur@curio.us> wrote:

Quote:
OK, great, but I am still curious --- at what point did the commutative
algebra authors (and some if not most algebraic number theory authors)
decide to call "irreducible" what we all call "prime" in high school
math, and to use the term "prime" for a different property? Does this go
back to Hilbert or even Dedekind?

Dedekind certainly already distinguishes between "irreducible" and the
"prime divisor property", but then, so does Kummer in his famous work
on "ideal prime divisors". I think it was fermenting already from the
time of Gauss, if not earlier.

Quote:
This must be initially confusing for students in algebra courses, or is it?

Since in most algebra courses, definitions are given explicitly, it
hsould not be.

Quote:
I know the two notions are equivalent in the ring of integers,

In fact, in any Unique Factorization Domain.

Quote:
but it
takes a bit of work to prove the equivalence (the first proof is
apparently due to Gauss, around 1800).

That sounds like the proof of the Fundamental Theorem of Arithmetic,
rather than an explicit proof that all irreducibles have the prime
divisor property (the prime divisor property, by the way, is that if p
divides a*b then it divides a or it divides b, and that goes back to
Euclid!).

It is very easy to see that the prime divisor property implies
irreducibility; the difficulty is the other way around (since it is
not always true).

--
======================================================================
"It's not denial. I'm just very selective about
what I accept as reality."
--- Calvin ("Calvin and Hobbes")
======================================================================

Arturo Magidin
magidin@math.berkeley.edu
curious
Posted: Wed Dec 24, 2003 10:03 am
Guest
Bill Dubuque wrote:
Quote:
Arturo Magidin <magidin@math.berkeley.edu> wrote:

but there are, in many number fields, elements that [are
irreducible but not prime]. E.g., 2 in Z[sqrt(-5)].


There are simpler examples of a non-prime irreducible.

Let J < Q[x] be the ring of integer-valued polys: f(Z) < Z. In J
the irred 2|x(x+1) but neither 2|x nor 2|x+1.

Let T = R + x C[x] be the ring of polynomials in x with complex coefs
and with real constant coef.

In T, x is irred: x = fg => f or g of deg 0 so a unit

and x|(ix)^2 but not x|ix, so x isn't prime.

More generally let R < T be a ring extension with new unit u in
T\R. In R + x T[x]: x|(ux)(x/u) but neither factor.

E.g. Z + x Q[x], u = 2/3; note this ring lies between two UFDs
Z[x], Q[x] but isn't a UFD since irred x isn't prime, or,
explicitly: x x = ux x/u is a nonunique factorization.

Rings of this form are a rich source of (counter-) examples, e.g. see
[1] for a survey. Alternatively one may construct a generic
counterexample along the lines of my prior post [2].

-Bill Dubuque

[1] Muhammad Zafrullah, Various Facets of Rings between D[X] and K[X]
http://www.lohar.com/researchpdf/axbx.pdf

[2]
http://google.com/groups?threadm=y8zznru8v1d.fsf%40nestle.ai.mit.edu

OK, great, but I am still curious --- at what point did the commutative
algebra authors (and some if not most algebraic number theory authors)
decide to call "irreducible" what we all call "prime" in high school
math, and to use the term "prime" for a different property? Does this go
back to Hilbert or even Dedekind?

This must be initially confusing for students in algebra courses, or is it?

I know the two notions are equivalent in the ring of integers, but it
takes a bit of work to prove the equivalence (the first proof is
apparently due to Gauss, around 1800).

C
 
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