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Science Forum Index » Energy - Hydrogen Forum » But the Law Says....
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| Robert Sturgeon |
Posted: Fri Feb 23, 2007 11:18 am |
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On Fri, 23 Feb 2007 00:15:29 -0800,
Usenet2007@THE-DOMAIN-IN.SIG <Usenet2007@THE-DOMAIN-IN.SIG>
wrote:
(snips)
Quote: MY value of the time/energy I spend working is less than MY value
of the money I receive from customers (or an employer, if I had
one.)
Spending MY time/energy doing something else is less valuable (in
MY eyes) compared to the money I can earn by working at my job.
The customer's/employer's value of the money is less than THEIR
value of the time/energy it would take for them to accomplish the
work results themselves.
Along with the commission or wages they pay being less valued (in
THEIR eyes) than their revenue received as a result of that
contractor's/employee's labour.
Say you sell your labour to an employer for five bucks an hour.
That means that you value your hour (e.g. of leisure time) as
less than five dollars.
And the employer views your hour's work contribution to be worth
more than five dollars, in helping them to pull revenue.
You have described the basis of all free trade -- the
difference in value placed on things traded by the various
people doing the trading. Value is always relative, and
different people place different values on things, based on
how much they want them and how much they want other things
instead. Sadly, it's a simple concept that many people
don't understand.
--
Robert Sturgeon
Alcohol, Tobacco & Firearms should be a convenience store, not a government agency.
http://www.vistech.net/users/rsturge/ |
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| Bill Ward |
Posted: Fri Feb 23, 2007 11:57 am |
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On Fri, 23 Feb 2007 07:18:19 -0800, Robert Sturgeon wrote:
<snip>
Quote:
You have described the basis of all free trade -- the difference in value
placed on things traded by the various people doing the trading. Value is
always relative, and different people place different values on things,
based on how much they want them and how much they want other things
instead. Sadly, it's a simple concept that many people don't understand.
I think they understand as it applies to themselves, Robert. But they
also understand that if other people have "wrong" (different) values, they
can be taxed into submission, or encouraged by subsidies to behave the
"right" way in their transactions.
For example, note the number of Usenet posts suggesting the use of
government power (taxes, subsidies) to correct perceived problems without
actually passing a law prohibiting or requiring any behavior. This is
often done in the name of "using market forces", or "leveling the playing
field" for the "common good", so that all will pay or receive their "fair
share". Watch for those code words.
And of course, anyone who makes more money than me is filthy rich and
deserves a punitive tax rate, to keep mine lower. Success must be stamped
out, so the rest of us have a chance.
Sorry about the rant, thanks for your post.
Regards,
Bill Ward |
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| default |
Posted: Fri Feb 23, 2007 1:13 pm |
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Guest
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This idiot's understanding of the law and how people think and his knowledge
of US Constitutional history are on a par with my dead dog.
"strabo" <strabo@flashlight.net> wrote in message
news:1172216143_6719@sp6iad.superfeed.net...
Quote: A man negotiates a trade with another. That's the end of it.
A man contracts to work a given amount of time for a specified payment.
Once done, the transaction is complete and they both walk away.
That's free trade in free markets by free men.
You likely know all about business overhead, ledger systems and tax law,
so I'm going to give it to you straight, most people don't care. Most
people know that complexity breeds plenty of ways to get screwed. Most
people are practical. They have what is known as common sense.
The federalist constitution says that there may be a head tax IF it
is equally apportioned. This means that the federal government *may*
tax each citizen an equal share of the nation's cost of government.
So, figure up the total, divide by the number of citizens, and
send them each a bill at the end of each year. This is the only way
to fairly and reasonably tax.
That won't happen because thieves and opportunists disguised as
fair-minded, rational people have a stake in ventures that screw their
fellow citizens.
The income tax amendment and all its legalistic BS is manipulative and
inherently unfair as is its partner in crime, the central banking system
and debt money. They have survived and kept the public at bay due to
constant physical expansion and growth. Thus we now have preemptive
wars and phony trade agreements designed to create new consumers and new
markets, but this is approaching the end.
Thousands of colonial supporters of King George along with their
families were killed and their properties taken by fellow colonists.
Some were simply shot or hung while others were burned to death. Many
thousands more were run out of the Americas between 1775 and 1781. They
were Tories, opposed to free trade in free markets by free men.
Maybe you'll get lucky and miss the next purge.
time,
Carries no cost.
sweat,
Carries no cost.
labor,
Carries no cost.
for tangible goods.
Then you have income in the amount of the goods received.
Even exchange.
But it's not.
No tax.
But there is.
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| Guest |
Posted: Fri Feb 23, 2007 3:21 pm |
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On Feb 22, 2:18 pm, "Paul Thomas, CPA" <paulthomascp...@bellsouth.net>
wrote:
Quote: knews4u2c...@yahoo.com> wrote
An exchange of labor for anything of value is not a "gain."
Sure it is.
It is a even exchange,
It's absolutely not even.
Why would an employer pay you exactly the amount of revenue you generated?
Suppose he pays you more?
Suppose you install widgets and your boss pays you $1000 to climb up
on top of a building to install the widget but doesn't charge the
customer anything for the installation, but then charges a monthly
user fee to the customer. He takes a loss on the "install" but makes
money on the "rent."
Is your install worthless because the customer paid "nothing" for it.
Your example sucks.
Quote: The employer isn't going to pay you 100% of what you generate. They never
have, and never will.
That doesn't have anything to do with your exchange of labor for
remuneration.
I have the right to evenly exchange my labor for anything in an even
exchange. I cvan exchange it for dollars or donuts depending on my
mood.
Quote: time,
Carries no cost.
It cosy my parents plenty to create my life, my time here.
It has intrinsic value. It "costs" me to use it because I lose it
forever.
Quote: sweat,
Carries no cost.
If I had to walk twelve miles to get water in me to make the sweat it
"costs" me plenty. If I have to own a house and pay rent to get water
it "costs" me plenty.
Quote: labor,
Carries no cost.
It cost me plenty to stay alive to exchange my limited supply of
labor.
Quote: for tangible goods.
Then you have income in the amount of the goods received.
Bullshit. I made an even trade.
Quote: Even exchange.
But it's not.
No tax.
But there is.
Because you say so?
Because guys with guns and pens can defraud me of my money?
Quote: --
If electricity comes from electrons, does morality come from morons?
----------------
Paul A. Thomas, CPA
Athens, Georgia
Do CPA's come from government? |
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| Guest |
Posted: Fri Feb 23, 2007 3:27 pm |
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On Feb 23, 1:19 am, "Richard Macdonald" <rmacdon...@verizon.net>
wrote:
Quote: "strabo" <str...@flashlight.net> wrote in message
news:1172216143_6719@sp6iad.superfeed.net...
Paul Thomas, CPA wrote:
knews4u2c...@yahoo.com> wrote
An exchange of labor for anything of value is not a "gain."
Sure it is.
It is a even exchange,
It's absolutely not even.
Why would an employer pay you exactly the amount of revenue you
generated? The employer isn't going to pay you 100% of what you generate.
They never have, and never will.
A man contracts to work a given amount of time for a specified payment.
Once done, the transaction is complete and they both walk away.
Of course there is a gain for the provider of the labor. Before working,
he had nothing but his body. After working he still has his body, and
whatever he received for providing the labor. His labor cost him nothing
to provide except the expenditure of time than cannot be bought. All of
the receipt from the provision of this labor is gain. Gain is determined
by FMV received, less BASIS (cost to provider) given.- Hide quoted text -
- Show quoted text -
The basis of my labor is incalculable.
None the less IT IS STILL MINE and the CONSTITUTION says I have
"freedom of contract." That means I don't have to let the government
into my private affairs and dealings. If I want to exchange my spit
for Not Federal No Reserve NOTES, I don't have to tell anyone or share
in my exchange, EXCEPT UNDER APPORTIONED LEGAL TAXES.
It becomes measurable as I exchange it for other things. |
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| Paul Thomas, CPA |
Posted: Fri Feb 23, 2007 6:28 pm |
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<knews4u2chew@yahoo.com> wrote
Quote: The basis of my labor is incalculable.
That you can't place a figure on yoru time doesn't mean it's "incalculable",
it just means it's un-calculable - meaning you can't add up all the zeros.
What will you pay for the next hour of time? Nothing actually.
Quote: None the less IT IS STILL MINE
Sure it is, and it's actually something you can't sell to anyone. See, you
don't sell "time". You can't buy time either.
You can sell your services. And thankfully you get to deduct whatever you
expend to provide those services. Statutory deductions are allowed for
those expenses.
Quote: and the CONSTITUTION says I have
"freedom of contract."
You sure do.
Quote: That means I don't have to let the government
into my private affairs and dealings.
No, it doesn't mean that at all. It means the government can't compel you
to provide a service you don't want to. It also doesn't mean the government
can't prohibit you from providing certain services, like performing surgery,
for a fee.
Quote: It becomes measurable as I exchange it for other things.
Indeed, when you exchange your services for cash, the gain is quite
measurable, as well as taxable.
--
If electricity comes from electrons, does morality come from morons?
----------------
Paul A. Thomas, CPA
Athens, Georgia |
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| Dale E |
Posted: Sat Feb 24, 2007 10:38 am |
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cpt banjo wrote:
Quote: On Feb 20, 2:48 am, "Dale E" <"Dale E"@synapticsparks.info> wrote:
cpt banjo wrote:
And you didn't even have the guts to rely on Section 861 in your
defense, did you? Instead, you avoided the snake oil that you peddle
to others and relied instead on a Cheek defense -- that is, instead of
trying to convince the judge that your view of Section 861 was legally
correct, you abandoned what you profess to believe and tried to
convince the jury that you has a good faith belief that your views on
the law were correct, so that you didn't "willfully" evade taxes. But
the jury didn't buy it, did they?
Those that were at that trial know it was as much of a sham as any
other federal tax trial.
Which still doesn't answer the question: why didn't Rose raise his 861
argument with the judge? Could it be he knew it was nonsense?
And Rose still hasn't explained why he refused to pay his PA taxes.
Perhaps you mis-read the header. My name is Dale Eastman NOT Larken Rose.
--
http://www.synapticsparks.info/weeklydalee |
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| Paul Thomas, CPA |
Posted: Sat Feb 24, 2007 11:05 am |
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"Dale E" <"Dale E"@synapticsparks.info> wrote
Quote: Perhaps you mis-read the header. My name is Dale Eastman NOT Larken Rose.
But you're his mouth-piece - a/k/a butt-hole - that passes the same foul
gasses.
When Larken gets a hemorrhoid, you have a matching sore on your lips.
--
If electricity comes from electrons, does morality come from morons?
----------------
Paul A. Thomas, CPA
Athens, Georgia |
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| esenter |
Posted: Sat Feb 24, 2007 2:06 pm |
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Dale E wrote:
Quote:
Double negatives cancel: The following items are considered to be
taxable... ("For federal tax purposes") and, thus, may have expenses,
losses, or other deductions allocated and apportioned to them:
(A) In the case of a foreign taxpayer (including a
foreign sales corporation (FSC)) computing its
effectively connected income, gross income (whether
domestic or foreign source) which is not effectively
connected to the conduct of a United States trade or
business;
A foreign taxpayer's gross income is taxable. That's not me.
Your conclusions are directly opposite to the IRC.
"Section 871. Tax on nonresident alien individuals
(b) Income connected with United States business - graduated rate
of tax
(1) Imposition of tax
A nonresident alien individual engaged in trade or business
within the United States during the taxable year shall be taxable
as provided in section 1 or 55 on his taxable income which is
effectively connected with the conduct of a trade or business
within the United States.
(2) Determination of taxable income
In determining taxable income for purposes of paragraph (1),
gross income includes only gross income which is effectively
connected with the conduct of a trade or business within the
United States."
How does one explain this obvious contradiction between dale's analysis
and the IRC? Pick one:
a) The Secretary made a typo by including one too many "not"s, or
b) dale's analysis is WRONG, or
c) dale is an idiot, or
d) b and c. |
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| esenter |
Posted: Sat Feb 24, 2007 3:08 pm |
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strabo wrote:
Quote:
The federalist constitution says that there may be a head tax IF it
is equally apportioned. This means that the federal government *may*
tax each citizen an equal share of the nation's cost of government.
Nope. The Constitution provides for apportionment among the states
according to population or census. So each state pays its share of the
tax by its share of the total population. That means each citizen may
not have to pay an equal share.
For fun, if the income tax were apportioned, a state like Connecticut
with a median per capita income of over $44K/yr would carry a much
smaller share of the tax debt than a state like Mississippi with a
median per capita income of around $26K/yr.
Quote: So, figure up the total, divide by the number of citizens, and
send them each a bill at the end of each year. This is the only way
to fairly and reasonably tax.
So a dirt farmer should pay the same tax as a multi-millionare?
How much govt does that millionare utilize compared to that dirt farmer? |
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| Gray Shockley |
Posted: Sat Feb 24, 2007 6:30 pm |
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On Fri, 23 Feb 2007 02:15:29 -0600, Usenet2007@THE-DOMAIN-IN.SIG
wrote:
Quote: In article
1172180164.241093.123950@l53g2000cwa.googlegroups.com>,
cptbanjo@aol.com says...
On Feb 22, 2:47 pm, knews4u2c...@yahoo.com wrote:
An exchange of labor for anything of value is not a "gain."
It is a even exchange, time, sweat, labor, for tangible goods.
Even exchange. No tax.
No apportionment, no legal tax.
Sigh...another one who doesn't know that gain isn't measured by the
difference in value of the things exchanged.
From a certain angle, it is measured that way.
MY value of the time/energy I spend working is less than MY value
of the money I receive from customers (or an employer, if I had
one.)
Spending MY time/energy doing something else is less valuable (in
MY eyes) compared to the money I can earn by working at my job.
The customer's/employer's value of the money is less than THEIR
value of the time/energy it would take for them to accomplish the
work results themselves.
Along with the commission or wages they pay being less valued (in
THEIR eyes) than their revenue received as a result of that
contractor's/employee's labour.
Say you sell your labour to an employer for five bucks an hour.
That means that you value your hour (e.g. of leisure time) as
less than five dollars.
And the employer views your hour's work contribution to be worth
more than five dollars, in helping them to pull revenue.
And, of course:
"A price is something you get. A cost is something you lose."
- Bujold / Shards
Gray |
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| Fred Kasner |
Posted: Sat Feb 24, 2007 9:56 pm |
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knews4u2chew@yahoo.com wrote:
Quote: On Feb 23, 1:19 am, "Richard Macdonald" <rmacdon...@verizon.net
wrote:
"strabo" <str...@flashlight.net> wrote in message
news:1172216143_6719@sp6iad.superfeed.net...
Paul Thomas, CPA wrote:
knews4u2c...@yahoo.com> wrote
An exchange of labor for anything of value is not a "gain."
Sure it is.
It is a even exchange,
It's absolutely not even.
Why would an employer pay you exactly the amount of revenue you
generated? The employer isn't going to pay you 100% of what you generate.
They never have, and never will.
A man contracts to work a given amount of time for a specified payment.
Once done, the transaction is complete and they both walk away.
Of course there is a gain for the provider of the labor. Before working,
he had nothing but his body. After working he still has his body, and
whatever he received for providing the labor. His labor cost him nothing
to provide except the expenditure of time than cannot be bought. All of
the receipt from the provision of this labor is gain. Gain is determined
by FMV received, less BASIS (cost to provider) given.- Hide quoted text -
- Show quoted text -
The basis of my labor is incalculable.
None the less IT IS STILL MINE and the CONSTITUTION says I have
"freedom of contract." That means I don't have to let the government
into my private affairs and dealings. If I want to exchange my spit
for Not Federal No Reserve NOTES, I don't have to tell anyone or share
in my exchange, EXCEPT UNDER APPORTIONED LEGAL TAXES.
It becomes measurable as I exchange it for other things.
Still full of it, aren't you SuperDummy. The law is what the Supreme
Court of the USA says it is. To this there is no appeal and no evasion
that does not incur governmental sanction. Your failure to understand
this leads to the idiocy you repeatedly display here.
FK |
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| Guest |
Posted: Sat Feb 24, 2007 10:04 pm |
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On Feb 24, 5:56 pm, Fred Kasner <fkas...@sbcglobal.net> wrote:
Quote: knews4u2c...@yahoo.com wrote:
On Feb 23, 1:19 am, "Richard Macdonald" <rmacdon...@verizon.net
wrote:
"strabo" <str...@flashlight.net> wrote in message
news:1172216143_6719@sp6iad.superfeed.net...
Paul Thomas, CPA wrote:
knews4u2c...@yahoo.com> wrote
An exchange of labor for anything of value is not a "gain."
Sure it is.
It is a even exchange,
It's absolutely not even.
Why would an employer pay you exactly the amount of revenue you
generated? The employer isn't going to pay you 100% of what you generate.
They never have, and never will.
A man contracts to work a given amount of time for a specified payment.
Once done, the transaction is complete and they both walk away.
Of course there is a gain for the provider of the labor. Before working,
he had nothing but his body. After working he still has his body, and
whatever he received for providing the labor. His labor cost him nothing
to provide except the expenditure of time than cannot be bought. All of
the receipt from the provision of this labor is gain. Gain is determined
by FMV received, less BASIS (cost to provider) given.- Hide quoted text -
- Show quoted text -
The basis of my labor is incalculable.
None the less IT IS STILL MINE and the CONSTITUTION says I have
"freedom of contract." That means I don't have to let the government
into my private affairs and dealings. If I want to exchange my spit
for Not Federal No Reserve NOTES, I don't have to tell anyone or share
in my exchange, EXCEPT UNDER APPORTIONED LEGAL TAXES.
It becomes measurable as I exchange it for other things.
Still full of it, aren't you SuperDummy. The law is what the Supreme
Court of the USA says it is.
"The (sixteenth) ammendment created no new powers of taxation." It
changed NOTHING. That means there is no "income" tax on wages that are
not apportioned to the states by population.
Quote: To this there is no appeal and no evasion
that does not incur governmental sanction. Your failure to understand
this leads to the idiocy you repeatedly display here.
FK- Hide quoted text -
- Show quoted text -
Plain old fascist lies.
Who pays the courts salaries?
The exchange of labor for tangible goods is not taxable. |
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| Guest |
Posted: Sat Feb 24, 2007 10:16 pm |
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On Feb 23, 4:39 am, "Paul Thomas, CPA" <paulthomascp...@bellsouth.net>
wrote:
Quote: "strabo" <str...@flashlight.net> wrote
Why would an employer pay you exactly the amount of revenue you
generated? The employer isn't going to pay you 100% of what you generate.
They never have, and never will.
A man negotiates a trade with another. That's the end of it.
But why would you negotiate to a point of not feeling that you've gotten the
best deal?
Because you "need" a job. My girlfriend constantly complains that she
is not paid what she is worth to work for a fascist CORPORATION. She
doesn't think she is getting a "good deal" but she must work for wha
she can to pay her bills.
Quote: Face it, both sides feel they are getting, not an even deal, but
that each is feeling that they're coming out ahead.
Bullshit. Many people and businesses both feel they are getting the
short end of the employment bargain.
Quote: Both sides feel they
are getting a gain on their costs, and both sides are right.
You are very naive'.
Quote: The worker is getting a wage for that time that otherwise would not be
sellable (once time lapses, it can't be sold).
So?
It doesn't mean they got a "gain."
If they do volunteer work instead does the recipient have a "gain"
because they paid nothing for the labor given?
Quote: The employer is getting a greater value from that worker than he pays the
worker (otherwise he'd hire someone at a lower wage).
Not if the isn't anyone available.
Quote: Both sides gain, both pay tax on that gain.
Only fictitious entities created by government sanction are taxable.
Quote: A man contracts to work a given amount of time for a specified payment.
Once done, the transaction is complete and they both walk away.
And both will probably owe taxes on their respective gain.
Under the current fraud you are prosecuted for not complying. Some
"voluntary" system that is huh?
Quote: That's free trade in free markets by free men.
Sure, the trade is "free", in that no one is compelling you to trade at all.
Lie. On must trade to survive.
So how does the government get a right to be in my contacts to
survive?
Quote: But the gains are taxable.
No gains. I make an even trade.
Quote: You likely know all about business overhead, ledger systems and tax law,
so I'm going to give it to you straight, most people don't care. Most
people know that complexity breeds plenty of ways to get screwed. Most
people are practical. They have what is known as common sense.
Interestingly I've seen many instances of that not being true.
The federalist constitution says that there may be a head tax IF it
is equally apportioned. This means that the federal government *may*
tax each citizen an equal share of the nation's cost of government.
But we don't have a "head tax".
So, figure up the total, divide by the number of citizens, and
send them each a bill at the end of each year. This is the only way
to fairly and reasonably tax.
People smarter than you decided that it wasn't fair or reasonable to tax in
that manner.
Who says they are smarter?
Quote: That won't happen because thieves and opportunists disguised as
fair-minded, rational people have a stake in ventures that screw their
fellow citizens.
They've seen from history that a "head tax" is not fair or equitable to all
citizens.
Why not?
Does one rich person breath more air than a poor one?
Does a rich person eat more?
Many would argue that the poor do more damage to the planet than the
rich. They drive old cars that pollute more.
Quote: Snip lunatic rant
Maybe you'll get lucky and miss the next purge.
Threat noted.
Is that all you have? And you have to hide your name while you make it.
What a man you turned out to be.
--
If electricity comes from electrons, does morality come from morons?
----------------
Paul A. Thomas, CPA
Paid stooge tax collector of the government. |
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| Dave Johnson |
Posted: Sat Feb 24, 2007 10:33 pm |
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Guest
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On Feb 24, 9:04 pm, knews4u2c...@yahoo.com wrote:
Quote: On Feb 24, 5:56 pm, Fred Kasner <fkas...@sbcglobal.net> wrote:
knews4u2c...@yahoo.com wrote:
On Feb 23, 1:19 am, "Richard Macdonald" <rmacdon...@verizon.net
wrote:
"strabo" <str...@flashlight.net> wrote in message
news:1172216143_6719@sp6iad.superfeed.net...
Paul Thomas, CPA wrote:
knews4u2c...@yahoo.com> wrote
An exchange of labor for anything of value is not a "gain."
Sure it is.
It is a even exchange,
It's absolutely not even.
Why would an employer pay you exactly the amount of revenue you
generated? The employer isn't going to pay you 100% of what you generate.
They never have, and never will.
A man contracts to work a given amount of time for a specified payment.
Once done, the transaction is complete and they both walk away.
Of course there is a gain for the provider of the labor. Before working,
he had nothing but his body. After working he still has his body, and
whatever he received for providing the labor. His labor cost him nothing
to provide except the expenditure of time than cannot be bought. All of
the receipt from the provision of this labor is gain. Gain is determined
by FMV received, less BASIS (cost to provider) given.- Hide quoted text -
- Show quoted text -
The basis of my labor is incalculable.
None the less IT IS STILL MINE and the CONSTITUTION says I have
"freedom of contract." That means I don't have to let the government
into my private affairs and dealings. If I want to exchange my spit
for Not Federal No Reserve NOTES, I don't have to tell anyone or share
in my exchange, EXCEPT UNDER APPORTIONED LEGAL TAXES.
It becomes measurable as I exchange it for other things.
Still full of it, aren't you SuperDummy. The law is what the Supreme
Court of the USA says it is.
"The (sixteenth) ammendment created no new powers of taxation." It
changed NOTHING. That means there is no "income" tax on wages that are
not apportioned to the states by population.
To this there is no appeal and no evasion
that does not incur governmental sanction. Your failure to understand
this leads to the idiocy you repeatedly display here.
FK- Hide quoted text -
- Show quoted text -
Plain old fascist lies.
Who pays the courts salaries?
The exchange of labor for tangible goods is not taxable.
Yeah, blame taxes on the "fascists" !!
sorry, your income is still taxable! (unless you make less than the
standard deduction and personal exemption)
But I would want to talk to those fascists about those property taxes!
www.evans-legal.com/dan/tpfaq.html |
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