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Science Forum Index » Energy - Hydrogen Forum » But the Law Says....
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| Richard Macdonald |
Posted: Tue Feb 20, 2007 5:17 am |
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"Dale E" <"Dale E"@synapticsparks.info> wrote in message
news:IByCh.104$PL.41@newsread4.news.pas.earthlink.net...
Quote:
cpt banjo wrote:
On Feb 17, 2:10 pm, knews4u2c...@yahoo.com wrote:
From email list
For reasons shown below, I believe that one should use Section 861 of the
federal tax
code, and the regulations related to that section, to determine one's
taxable DOMESTIC income
(income from inside the U.S.). However, the vast majority of tax
professionals do NOT use those
sections for that, and the IRS very much does NOT want people looking
there.
If all of one's income is US-sourced, all tax professionals know that
Section 861 is irrelevant to computing one's taxable income.
Code of Federal Regulations
From the U.S. Government Printing Office via GPO Access
Sec. 1.861-8(f)(3)(ii) Relationship of sections 861, 862, 863(a), and
863(b). Sections 861, 862, 863(a), and 863(b) are the four provisions
applicable in determining taxable income from specific sources. EACH OF
THESE FOUR PROVISIONS APPLIES INDEPENDENTLY.
Code of Federal Regulations
From the U.S. Government Printing Office via GPO Access
Sec. 1.861-8 Computation of taxable income from sources within the United
States and from other sources and activities.
And if you do not have income from both within and without the US,
the whole procedure outlined in 1.861-8 becomes redundant and
all you US sourced income will drop into one grouping and all the
associated deductions are subtracted from it and what ever is left
becomes taxable income per 26 USC 861(b): "From the items of
gross income specified in subsection (a) as being income from
sources within the United States there shall be deducted the
expenses, losses, and other deductions properly apportioned or
allocated thereto and a ratable part of any expenses, losses, or
other deductions which cannot definitely be allocated to some
item or class of gross income. The remainder, if any, shall be
included in full as taxable income from sources within the United
States." However, Larken and Dale's arguments totally ignore
what the law says in 861(b). |
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| Hale_E |
Posted: Tue Feb 20, 2007 8:31 am |
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On Feb 20, 3:59 am, "Dale E" Dale E@synapticsparks.info> wrote:
Quote: Don Lancaster wrote: Dale_E@synapticsparks.info
The little old lady and her husband down the street who just did a year
in the slammer believing this crap.
Mr. Lancaster, DaleE@synapticsparks.info
I have a copy of the "TTL Cookbook" sitting on my shelf.
That title should be intimately familiar to you since you wrote it.
That title proves to me that your momma didn't raise an idiot...
Now why don't you step outside your ignorant prejudice and examine the
facts?
I've been to yours, now you visit mine
:http://www.synapticsparks.info/evidence/tax scams
I visited your scam site dale!!
please vist mine !
www.evans-legal.com/dan/tpfaq.html
www.quatloos.com internet tax scams
www.fraudsandscams.com larken rose tax scams 861 |
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| Dale E |
Posted: Tue Feb 20, 2007 8:36 am |
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I'm so glad you left the original cross posts, so more of the world
can see you you do graffiti on the net.
Hale_E wrote:
Quote: On Feb 20, 3:59 am, "Dale E" Dale E@synapticsparks.info> wrote:
Don Lancaster wrote: Dale_E@synapticsparks.info
The little old lady and her husband down the street who just did a year
in the slammer believing this crap.
Mr. Lancaster, DaleE@synapticsparks.info
I have a copy of the "TTL Cookbook" sitting on my shelf.
That title should be intimately familiar to you since you wrote it.
That title proves to me that your momma didn't raise an idiot...
Now why don't you step outside your ignorant prejudice and examine the
facts?
I've been to yours, now you visit mine
:http://www.synapticsparks.info/evidence/tax scams
I visited your scam site dale!!
please vist mine !
www.evans-legal.com/dan/tpfaq.html
www.quatloos.com internet tax scams
www.fraudsandscams.com larken rose tax scams 861
--
http://www.synapticsparks.info/weeklydalee |
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| Hale_E |
Posted: Tue Feb 20, 2007 8:42 am |
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| Paul Thomas, CPA |
Posted: Tue Feb 20, 2007 8:50 am |
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"Dale E" <"Dale E"@synapticsparks.info> wrote
Quote: The page number of the Form 1040 instructions that say:
What page do you find that on?
Quote: You must report unearned income, such as interest, dividends, and
pensions, from sources inside the United States unless exempt by law or a
tax treaty. You must also report earned income, such as wages and tips,
from sources inside the United States.
The instructions for Schedule B, Line 1 begins with: "Report on Line 1 all
your taxable interest."
The instructions for Form 1040, Line 8a reads in part: "Enter your total
taxable interest income on line 8a."
Quote: I can't find it... But I CAN find the page in the instruction book that
says:
You must report unearned income, such as interest, dividends, and
pensions, from sources outside the United States unless exempt by law or a
tax treaty. You must also report earned income, such as wages and tips,
from sources outside the United States.
Sure, in the section that specifically is describing Foreign-Sourced Income.
Page 22 in the instructions I have.
Why then would the instructions for Line 7 Wages, Salaries, Tips, etc. read
in part: "Enter the total of your wages, salaries, tips, etc. If a joint
return, also include your spouse's income. For most people, the amount to
enter on this line should be shown in box 1 of their Form(s) W-2."
W-2 forms are only issued to employees working in US businesses (ie: US
sourced income).
People in China don't get W-2's. People in Canada don't get W-2's. People
in Mexico don't get W-2's.
Oh wait. You only read the parts you were shown by Larken the Criminal.
Face it Dale, Larken is lining up to go back to jail again (he met someone
that he's smitten with maybe?).
--
If electricity comes from electrons, does morality come from morons?
----------------
Paul A. Thomas, CPA
Athens, Georgia |
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| Dale E |
Posted: Tue Feb 20, 2007 9:59 am |
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Richard Macdonald wrote:
Quote: "Dale E" <"Dale E"@synapticsparks.info> wrote in message
news:IByCh.104$PL.41@newsread4.news.pas.earthlink.net...
cpt banjo wrote:
On Feb 17, 2:10 pm, knews4u2c...@yahoo.com wrote:
From email list
For reasons shown below, I believe that one should use Section 861 of the
federal tax
code, and the regulations related to that section, to determine one's
taxable DOMESTIC income
(income from inside the U.S.). However, the vast majority of tax
professionals do NOT use those
sections for that, and the IRS very much does NOT want people looking
there.
If all of one's income is US-sourced, all tax professionals know that
Section 861 is irrelevant to computing one's taxable income.
Code of Federal Regulations
From the U.S. Government Printing Office via GPO Access
Sec. 1.861-8(f)(3)(ii) Relationship of sections 861, 862, 863(a), and
863(b). Sections 861, 862, 863(a), and 863(b) are the four provisions
applicable in determining taxable income from specific sources. EACH OF
THESE FOUR PROVISIONS APPLIES INDEPENDENTLY.
Code of Federal Regulations
From the U.S. Government Printing Office via GPO Access
Sec. 1.861-8 Computation of taxable income from sources within the United
States and from other sources and activities.
And if you do not have income from both within and without the US,
the whole procedure outlined in 1.861-8 becomes redundant
1.861-8(f)(3)(ii) Relationship of sections 861, 862,
863(a), and 863(b). Sections 861, 862, 863(a), and
863(b) are the four provisions applicable in
determining taxable income from specific sources.
Each of these four provisions applies independently.
Section 861 applies independently. (For the lurkers, that is the
section dealing with gross income from within the U.S.)
1.861-8(a) In general--(1) Scope. Sections 861(b) and
863(a) state in general terms how to determine
taxable income of a taxpayer from sources within the
United States after gross income from sources within
the United States has been determined. ---
Section 861(b) states in "general terms" how to determine taxable income.
1.861-8(a)(1)This section provides specific guidance
for applying the cited Code sections by prescribing
rules for the allocation and apportionment of
expenses, losses, and other deductions (referred to
collectively in this section as ``deductions'') of
the taxpayer.
Section 1.861-8 provides "specific guidance" by providing the "rules"
on how to apply section 861(b).
1.861-8(a)(1)The rules contained in this section
apply in determining taxable income of the taxpayer
from specific sources and activities under other
sections of the Code, referred to in this section as
operative sections.
The rules apply in determining the taxable income from specific
sources and activities.
Remember, these ARE the rules of SPECIFIC guidance for determining
taxable income from sources within the U.S. to which section 861(b) is
applicable.
1.861-8(a)(2) Allocation and apportionment of
deductions in general. A taxpayer to which this
section applies is required to allocate deductions to
a class of gross income and---
I assume this "class of gross income" is the "one grouping" to which
Mr. Macdonald refers.
Quote: and
all you US sourced income will drop into one grouping
1.861-8(a)(3) Class of gross income. For purposes of
this section, the gross income to which a specific
deduction is definitely related is referred to as a
``class of gross income'' and may consist of one or
more items (or subdivisions of these items) of gross
income enumerated in section 61, namely:
(i) Compensation for services, including fees,
commissions, and similar items;
A class of gross income may consist of compensation for services.
1.861-8(b) Allocation--(1) In general. For purposes
of this section, the gross income to which a specific
deduction is definitely related is referred to as a
``class of gross income'' and may consist of one or
more items of gross income.
A class of gross income may consist of compensation for services.
1.861-8(b)(1)The rules emphasize the factual
relationship between the deduction and a class of
gross income.
A burger flipper's deduction for pans and spatulas would have a
factual relationship to the burger flipper's compensation for the
labor of flipping burgers.
1.861-8(b)(1) See paragraph (d)(1) of this section
which provides that in a taxable year there may be no
item of gross income in a class or less gross income
than deductions allocated to the class, and paragraph
(d)(2) of this section which provides that a class of
gross income may include excluded income.
See --- paragraph (d)(2) of this section which provides that a class
of gross income may include excluded income.
HUH?!
A class of gross income may consist entirely of compensation for
services AND a class of gross income me include excluded income?
1.861-8(a)(4) Statutory grouping of gross income and
residual grouping of gross income. For purposes of
this section, the term ``statutory grouping of gross
income'' or ``statutory grouping'' means the gross
income from a specific source or activity which must
first be determined in order to arrive at ``taxable
income'' from which specific source or activity under
an operative section. ---
In some instances, where the operative section so
requires, the statutory grouping or the residual
grouping may include, or consist entirely of,
excluded income. See paragraph (d)(2) of this section
with respect to the allocation and apportionment of
deductions to excluded income.
HUH?!
The statutory grouping or the residual grouping may include, or
consist entirely of, excluded income. See paragraph (d)(2) of this
section with respect to the allocation and apportionment of deductions
to excluded income.
Wouldn't a prudent person check to see if their 'income' was excluded?
1.861-8(d)(2) Allocation and apportionment to exempt,
excluded, or eliminated income. [Reserved] For
guidance, see Sec. 1.861-8T(d)(2).
Looking for the cheese at the end of the maze.
1.861-8T(d)(2)(ii) Exempt income and exempt asset
defined--(A) In general. For purposes of this
section, the term exempt income means any income that
is, in whole or in part, exempt, excluded, or
eliminated for federal income tax purposes. The term
exempt asset means any asset the income from which
is, in whole or in part, exempt, excluded, or
eliminated for federal tax purposes.
For the purposes of the "specific guidance" that provides the "rules"
on how to apply section 861(b), exempt income means any income that is
not used for Federal tax purposes.
For the purposes of the rules that apply in determining the taxable
income from specific sources and activities, exempt income means any
income that is not used for federal tax purposes.
Exempt income is income that is NOT used for federal tax purposes.
Wouldn't the prudent person want to know if their 'income' was not to
be used for federal tax purposes?
1.861-8T(d)(2)(iii) Income that is not considered tax
exempt. The following items are not considered to be
exempt, eliminated, or excluded income and, thus, may
have expenses, losses, or other deductions allocated
and apportioned to them:
Income that is not considered tax exempt. ("For federal tax purposes")
Tax exempt means not taxable. ("For federal tax purposes")
Income that is not considered not taxable. ("For federal tax purposes")
Double negatives cancel: Income that is considered taxable. ("For
federal tax purposes")
"He's considered an idiot" is not functionally different from "He's an
idiot."
The following items are not considered to be exempt, eliminated, or
excluded income ...
Exempt, eliminated, or excluded income means income that is not
taxable... ("For federal tax purposes")
The following items are not considered to be not taxable... ("For
federal tax purposes")
Double negatives cancel: The following items are considered to be
taxable... ("For federal tax purposes") and, thus, may have expenses,
losses, or other deductions allocated and apportioned to them:
(A) In the case of a foreign taxpayer (including a
foreign sales corporation (FSC)) computing its
effectively connected income, gross income (whether
domestic or foreign source) which is not effectively
connected to the conduct of a United States trade or
business;
A foreign taxpayer's gross income is taxable. That's not me.
(B) In computing the combined taxable income of a
DISC or FSC and its related supplier, the gross
income of a DISC or a FSC;
A Domestic International Sales Corp's gross income is taxable. A
Foreign Sales Corp's gross income is taxable. That's not me.
(C) For all purposes under subchapter N of the Code,
including the computation of combined taxable income
of a possessions corporation and its affiliates under
section 936(h), the gross income of a possessions
corporation for which a credit is allowed under
section 936(a); and
A posessions corporation's gross income is taxable. That's not me.
(D) Foreign earned income as defined in section 911
and the regulations thereunder (however, the rules of
Sec. 1.911-6 do not require the allocation and
apportionment of certain deductions, including home
mortgage interest, to foreign earned income for
purposes of determining the deductions disallowed
under section 911(d)(6)).
Foreign earned income. That could be me IF I had such foreign earned
income.
Page 22 of the 2003 instruction booklet;
Page 19 of the 2004 instuction booklet;
Page 22 of the 2005 instruction booklet;
Page 22 of the 2006 instruction booklet:
You must report unearned income, such as interest,
dividends, and pensions, from sources OUTSIDE the
United States unless exempt by law or a tax treaty.
You must also report earned income, such as wages and
tips, from sources OUTSIDE the United States.
Mr. Macdonald, I'll send you $50.00 if, by February 27, 2007, you can
tell me what page of this pdf file
http://www.irs.gov/pub/irs-pdf/i1040.pdf
I can find the words that state:
"You must report unearned income, such as interest, dividends, and
pensions, from sources INSIDE the United States unless exempt by law
or a tax treaty. You must also report earned income, such as wages and
tips, from sources INSIDE the United States."
Seems the Form 1040 instruction booklets all agree with my
interpretation of the 861 regs.
Quote: and all the
associated deductions are subtracted from it and what ever is left
becomes taxable income per 26 USC 861(b): "From the items of
gross income specified in subsection (a) as being income from
sources within the United States
That is, if that income is income that is not exempt for purposes of
the federal income tax. [1.861-8T(d)(2)(ii) & (iii)]
1.861-1(a)Part I (section 861 and following),
subchapter N, chapter 1 of the Code, and the
regulations thereunder determine the sources of
income for purposes of the income tax.
Quote: there shall be deducted the
expenses, losses, and other deductions properly apportioned or
allocated thereto and a ratable part of any expenses, losses, or
other deductions which cannot definitely be allocated to some
item or class of gross income. The remainder, if any, shall be
included in full as taxable income from sources within the United
States." However, Larken and Dale's arguments totally ignore
what the law says in 861(b).
If the gross income listed in 861(a) is not income for purposes of the
federal tax or is not income from sources that are sources for
purposes of the income tax, then you can't deduct anything from it
because it is OFF LIMITS.
Mr. Macdonald's arguments totally ignore what the law says in 1.861-8,
1.861-8T, 1.861-1
That's it for my posting this week. C'Y'all again next week. |
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| cpt banjo |
Posted: Tue Feb 20, 2007 11:01 am |
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On Feb 20, 2:48 am, "Dale E" <"Dale E"@synapticsparks.info> wrote:
Quote: cpt banjo wrote:
And you didn't even have the guts to rely on Section 861 in your
defense, did you? Instead, you avoided the snake oil that you peddle
to others and relied instead on a Cheek defense -- that is, instead of
trying to convince the judge that your view of Section 861 was legally
correct, you abandoned what you profess to believe and tried to
convince the jury that you has a good faith belief that your views on
the law were correct, so that you didn't "willfully" evade taxes. But
the jury didn't buy it, did they?
Those that were at that trial know it was as much of a sham as any
other federal tax trial.
Which still doesn't answer the question: why didn't Rose raise his 861
argument with the judge? Could it be he knew it was nonsense?
And Rose still hasn't explained why he refused to pay his PA taxes. |
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| Richard Macdonald |
Posted: Tue Feb 20, 2007 7:52 pm |
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"Dale E" <"Dale E"@synapticsparks.info> wrote in message
news:z9DCh.3825$_73.692@newsread2.news.pas.earthlink.net...
Quote:
Mr. Macdonald's arguments totally ignore what the law says in 1.861-8,
1.861-8T, 1.861-1
Dale seems to confuse LAW and mere regulations that have no
power to alter what the law says and that's why his BS always
fails. Again the LAW, Section 26 USC 861 says:
26 USC 861(b) TAXABLE INCOME FROM SOURCES
WITHIN UNITED STATES
From the items of gross income specified in subsection (a)
as being income from sources within the United States there
shall be deducted the expenses, losses, and other deductions
properly apportioned or allocated thereto and a ratable part
of any expenses, losses, or other deductions which cannot
definitely be allocated to some item or class of gross income.
The remainder, if any, shall be included in full as taxable
income from sources within the United States.
So until Dale can clearly demonstrate where Regualtions
written by Treasury Department bureaucrats have the power
to alter and overcome statudes enacted by Congress, which
under the Constitutionare the Supreme law of the Land, the
entiore basis for his assertions are worthless. |
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| Guest |
Posted: Thu Feb 22, 2007 4:47 pm |
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On Feb 17, 2:32 pm, "Richard Macdonald" <rmacdon...@verizon.net>
wrote:
Quote: "cpt banjo" <cptba...@aol.com> wrote in message
news:1171745374.651600.264320@k78g2000cwa.googlegroups.com...
On Feb 17, 2:10 pm, knews4u2c...@yahoo.com wrote:
From email list
For reasons shown below, I believe that one should use Section 861 of the
federal tax
code, and the regulations related to that section, to determine one's
taxable DOMESTIC income
(income from inside the U.S.). However, the vast majority of tax
professionals do NOT use those
sections for that, and the IRS very much does NOT want people looking
there.
If all of one's income is US-sourced, all tax professionals know that
Section 861 is irrelevant to computing one's taxable income.
Actually 861 et seq and associated regulations are quite important
for the allocation and apportionment of expenses to gross income
in the computation of taxable income. However trying to give them
any more meaning or interpretation beyond the powers of the
overlaying statutes is totally unsupportable as many found out the
hard way.
26 USC (b) TAXABLE INCOME FROM SOURCES
WITHIN UNITED STATES
From the items of gross income specified in subsection (a) as
being income from sources within the United States there shall
be deducted the expenses, losses, and other deductions properly
apportioned or allocated thereto and a ratable part of any expenses,
losses, or other deductions which cannot definitely be allocated
to some item or class of gross income. The remainder, if any, shall
be included in full as taxable income from sources within the United
States. . . .
Ignoring the LAW or attempting to interpret the regulations
in a manner not consistent with the LAW is a sure loser. The
entire 861 argument totally ignores the actual LAW.
An exchange of labor for anything of value is not a "gain."
It is a even exchange, time, sweat, labor, for tangible goods.
Even exchange. No tax.
No apportionment, no legal tax. |
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| cpt banjo |
Posted: Thu Feb 22, 2007 5:36 pm |
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On Feb 22, 2:47 pm, knews4u2c...@yahoo.com wrote:
Quote: An exchange of labor for anything of value is not a "gain."
It is a even exchange, time, sweat, labor, for tangible goods.
Even exchange. No tax.
No apportionment, no legal tax.
Sigh...another one who doesn't know that gain isn't measured by the
difference in value of the things exchanged. |
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| Paul Thomas, CPA |
Posted: Thu Feb 22, 2007 6:18 pm |
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<knews4u2chew@yahoo.com> wrote
Quote: An exchange of labor for anything of value is not a "gain."
Sure it is.
Quote: It is a even exchange,
It's absolutely not even.
Why would an employer pay you exactly the amount of revenue you generated?
The employer isn't going to pay you 100% of what you generate. They never
have, and never will.
Carries no cost.
Carries no cost.
Carries no cost.
Quote: for tangible goods.
Then you have income in the amount of the goods received.
But it's not.
But there is.
--
If electricity comes from electrons, does morality come from morons?
----------------
Paul A. Thomas, CPA
Athens, Georgia |
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| strabo |
Posted: Fri Feb 23, 2007 3:34 am |
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Paul Thomas, CPA wrote:
Quote: knews4u2chew@yahoo.com> wrote
An exchange of labor for anything of value is not a "gain."
Sure it is.
It is a even exchange,
It's absolutely not even.
Why would an employer pay you exactly the amount of revenue you generated?
The employer isn't going to pay you 100% of what you generate. They never
have, and never will.
A man negotiates a trade with another. That's the end of it.
A man contracts to work a given amount of time for a specified payment.
Once done, the transaction is complete and they both walk away.
That's free trade in free markets by free men.
You likely know all about business overhead, ledger systems and tax law,
so I'm going to give it to you straight, most people don't care. Most
people know that complexity breeds plenty of ways to get screwed. Most
people are practical. They have what is known as common sense.
The federalist constitution says that there may be a head tax IF it
is equally apportioned. This means that the federal government *may*
tax each citizen an equal share of the nation's cost of government.
So, figure up the total, divide by the number of citizens, and
send them each a bill at the end of each year. This is the only way
to fairly and reasonably tax.
That won't happen because thieves and opportunists disguised as
fair-minded, rational people have a stake in ventures that screw their
fellow citizens.
The income tax amendment and all its legalistic BS is manipulative and
inherently unfair as is its partner in crime, the central banking system
and debt money. They have survived and kept the public at bay due to
constant physical expansion and growth. Thus we now have preemptive
wars and phony trade agreements designed to create new consumers and new
markets, but this is approaching the end.
Thousands of colonial supporters of King George along with their
families were killed and their properties taken by fellow colonists.
Some were simply shot or hung while others were burned to death. Many
thousands more were run out of the Americas between 1775 and 1781. They
were Tories, opposed to free trade in free markets by free men.
Maybe you'll get lucky and miss the next purge.
Quote:
time,
Carries no cost.
sweat,
Carries no cost.
labor,
Carries no cost.
for tangible goods.
Then you have income in the amount of the goods received.
Even exchange.
But it's not.
No tax.
But there is.
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| Usenet2007@THE-DOMAIN-IN. |
Posted: Fri Feb 23, 2007 4:15 am |
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Guest
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In article
<1172180164.241093.123950@l53g2000cwa.googlegroups.com>,
cptbanjo@aol.com says...
Quote: On Feb 22, 2:47 pm, knews4u2c...@yahoo.com wrote:
An exchange of labor for anything of value is not a "gain."
It is a even exchange, time, sweat, labor, for tangible goods.
Even exchange. No tax.
No apportionment, no legal tax.
Quote: Sigh...another one who doesn't know that gain isn't measured by the
difference in value of the things exchanged.
From a certain angle, it is measured that way.
MY value of the time/energy I spend working is less than MY value
of the money I receive from customers (or an employer, if I had
one.)
Spending MY time/energy doing something else is less valuable (in
MY eyes) compared to the money I can earn by working at my job.
The customer's/employer's value of the money is less than THEIR
value of the time/energy it would take for them to accomplish the
work results themselves.
Along with the commission or wages they pay being less valued (in
THEIR eyes) than their revenue received as a result of that
contractor's/employee's labour.
Say you sell your labour to an employer for five bucks an hour.
That means that you value your hour (e.g. of leisure time) as
less than five dollars.
And the employer views your hour's work contribution to be worth
more than five dollars, in helping them to pull revenue.
--
Want Privacy?
http://www.MinistryOfPrivacy.com/ |
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| Richard Macdonald |
Posted: Fri Feb 23, 2007 5:19 am |
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"strabo" <strabo@flashlight.net> wrote in message
news:1172216143_6719@sp6iad.superfeed.net...
Quote: Paul Thomas, CPA wrote:
knews4u2chew@yahoo.com> wrote
An exchange of labor for anything of value is not a "gain."
Sure it is.
It is a even exchange,
It's absolutely not even.
Why would an employer pay you exactly the amount of revenue you
generated? The employer isn't going to pay you 100% of what you generate.
They never have, and never will.
A man contracts to work a given amount of time for a specified payment.
Once done, the transaction is complete and they both walk away.
Of course there is a gain for the provider of the labor. Before working,
he had nothing but his body. After working he still has his body, and
whatever he received for providing the labor. His labor cost him nothing
to provide except the expenditure of time than cannot be bought. All of
the receipt from the provision of this labor is gain. Gain is determined
by FMV received, less BASIS (cost to provider) given. |
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| Paul Thomas, CPA |
Posted: Fri Feb 23, 2007 8:39 am |
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"strabo" <strabo@flashlight.net> wrote
Quote: Why would an employer pay you exactly the amount of revenue you
generated? The employer isn't going to pay you 100% of what you generate.
They never have, and never will.
A man negotiates a trade with another. That's the end of it.
But why would you negotiate to a point of not feeling that you've gotten the
best deal? Face it, both sides feel they are getting, not an even deal, but
that each is feeling that they're coming out ahead. Both sides feel they
are getting a gain on their costs, and both sides are right.
The worker is getting a wage for that time that otherwise would not be
sellable (once time lapses, it can't be sold).
The employer is getting a greater value from that worker than he pays the
worker (otherwise he'd hire someone at a lower wage).
Both sides gain, both pay tax on that gain.
Quote: A man contracts to work a given amount of time for a specified payment.
Once done, the transaction is complete and they both walk away.
And both will probably owe taxes on their respective gain.
Quote: That's free trade in free markets by free men.
Sure, the trade is "free", in that no one is compelling you to trade at all.
But the gains are taxable.
Quote: You likely know all about business overhead, ledger systems and tax law,
so I'm going to give it to you straight, most people don't care. Most
people know that complexity breeds plenty of ways to get screwed. Most
people are practical. They have what is known as common sense.
Interestingly I've seen many instances of that not being true.
Quote: The federalist constitution says that there may be a head tax IF it
is equally apportioned. This means that the federal government *may*
tax each citizen an equal share of the nation's cost of government.
But we don't have a "head tax".
Quote: So, figure up the total, divide by the number of citizens, and
send them each a bill at the end of each year. This is the only way
to fairly and reasonably tax.
People smarter than you decided that it wasn't fair or reasonable to tax in
that manner.
Quote: That won't happen because thieves and opportunists disguised as
fair-minded, rational people have a stake in ventures that screw their
fellow citizens.
They've seen from history that a "head tax" is not fair or equitable to all
citizens.
<<<<Snip lunatic rant>>>>>>
Quote: Maybe you'll get lucky and miss the next purge.
Threat noted.
Is that all you have? And you have to hide your name while you make it.
What a man you turned out to be.
--
If electricity comes from electrons, does morality come from morons?
----------------
Paul A. Thomas, CPA
Athens, Georgia |
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