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Science Forum Index » Physics - Electromagnetic Forum » To Jewish Cowboy re Magnetism & thermo..
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Message |
| Don Kelly |
Posted: Sun Jan 28, 2007 11:24 pm |
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Guest
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Thank you for making me get off my butt and do some analysis (and also
correct some stupid errors).
I would like to correct part of what I said.
"With these conditions, the result is that the stored energy in the gap
(which is what we are really concerned with with regard to force and with
regard to what we can actually observe) rises to a peak (in this case when
the gap and magnet length are equal) and then falls off (which is not what
I expected) - and the internal stored energy in the magnet also does the
same- I will check this but I do note that at B or H =0 the magnet's stored
energy is 0 and the maximum energy point is somewhere in between -in fact a
situation close to that at maximum power transfer in a resistive circuit
appears to exist. "
This is not correct. I was introducing unnecessary complications as well as
some embarrassing mathematical asinities not worthy of a freshman.
In fact with the structure that I have indicated as well as the case of two
magnets facing each other (same thing but 2 of everything except cross
section), the force varies as the inverse of the square of (l+g) where l is
the magnet length and g is the gap.
The relationship delta(W field) =delta(Wmech) hold true (Wfield is the
stored energy in the field and Wmech is the external energy in opening the
gap by some delta(g)) If the gap is opened from 0 to infinity (neglecting
fringing etc) the stored energy and the total work done rises asymptotically
from 0 to a finite value. Results from the mechanical energy change and the
field energy change agree both in sign and magnitude.
Note that the magnet is working in the second quadrant of the B-H curve and
in the region where the permeability of the magnet is essentially muo. This
is the basis for saying that the flux in the gap is nearly constant for
small gaps. In this region, as the gap increases, the change in energy under
the B-H curve is positive (H negative and B going more negative).
The rest of what I said seems OK.
--
Don Kelly dhky@shawcross.ca
remove the X to answer
----------------------------
Former statement follows:
"Actually, I have been giving this some thought and did some initial
calculations (no guarantees attached at present) for a permanent magnet with
good electrical steel pole pieces to get effectively a C structure where
the back of the C is the magnet, the arms are steel with mu approaching
infinity and the opening being a gap. All flux is assumed to be in the gap
with fringing ignored. I also for simplicity assumed gap and magnet areas
are the same. The magnet is in saturation so then we have u(magnet) =muo
With these conditions, the result is that the stored energy in the gap
(which is what we are really concerned with with regard to force and with
regard to what we can actually observe) rises to a peak (in this case when
the gap and magnet length are equal) and then falls off (which is not what
I expected) - and the internal stored energy in the magnet also does the
same- I will check this but I do note that at B or H =0 the magnet's stored
energy is 0 and the maximum energy point is somewhere in between -in fact a
situation close to that at maximum power transfer in a resistive circuit
appears to exist. ( I can show you this-if you want- once I have
proof-read what I have done - I tend to back of envelope scribbling - it
would be easier with non-ascii math and pictures).
However the model fails at large gaps because there will be leakage around
the magnet (as well as fringing in the intended gap. At a gap length equal
to the magnet length, the total magnet flux will be shared nearly equally
between the gap and the fringing so the simplifying assumptions that I made
are then ratshit. Taking this into account, there will be a point where an
increase in gap has a negligable effect on the stored energy as the
effective gap becomes little more than the magnet length and the total
stored energy becomes constant.
In addition, there is a limit involved where irreversible demagnetisation
occurs and this is taken into consideration when designing a permanent
magnet. When the magnet is standing alone, the pole to pole gap must be such
that the flux density (and corresponding H) is above the knee of the
demagnetisation curve (see the second reference).
As for the two parallel wires. the same energy balance approach that I
mentioned earlier works for these as well. Note that now you have an
external current so that the energy balance involves the change in
electrical energy as well as the change in field and mechanical energy. I
agree that where the currents are in the same direction, the stored energy
in the field increases as the wires come together (as seen from the mutual
inductance) but the co-energy W' decreases.
You have a fixed mmf driving the system so that taking f(magnetic) =dW'/dx
with constant mmf (pain in the ass to try to solve using flux and ) leads
to a magnetic force pulling the wires together.
There are two factors of concern in trying to compare this situation to a
permanent magnet.
a)Consider current, in fact the same current, to simplify, in opposite
directions in the conductors. Now the magnetic force is one of repulsion.
You now have a solenoidal coil and the magnetisation of a permanent magnet
can be represented by a solenoid. This doesn't actually address your concern
b) That doesn't matter a hoot as the coil real or apparent is fixed and the
forces that exist are forces acting on the currents -not the magnetic
medium. The force of concern in any magnet are between parts of the magnetic
path. If one builds a solenoid, there are forces acting on the coils, trying
to expand them or shift them but these forces are, while a nuisance, not the
forces which are of importance- which are those due to changes in the
magnetic "medium"-e.g. the air gap of a lifting solenoid- where the coils
are fixed in space. The parallel conductor model deals with the case of
forces between conductors but not forces due to changes in the geometry of
the magnetic path which is the situation with a typical magnet.
The same energy balance approach can be used in either case (or a mixed
situation) but eventually, except in well defined situations, analysis gets
bloody messy." |
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| Math with Marty |
Posted: Thu Feb 01, 2007 2:19 pm |
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Thanks for the clarification. I had read your earlier post with
interest, even though I didn't respond to it.
Now you are re-opening the basic controversy by saying that
according to your corrected calculation, you believe that the
work done by separating the magnet from the iron can be
found in the field energy.
I think you might be wrong about this. Consider two C-shaped
permanent magnets touching each other, north to south and
south to north. The field energy is totally contained within the
magnetic material, nothing leaking out to the air. And
there is quite a lot of field energy...I think it's significantly
MORE than double the internal field energy of the magnets
taken separately. There certainly seems to be a superposition
effect of one magnet's B-field times the other magnet's H-field.
Now DO SOME WORK by twisting the magnets around so
that they are north-against-north and south-against-south.
Are you saying there is MORE field energy in this configuration?
It's hard to see how that can be, since now, in the vicinity
of the pole faces, one magnet's B-field cancels the other magnet's.
It certainly seems to me that everywhere within the magnets there
is less field energy. As far as the field leaking outside, it's hard
to see how this would make up for wha'ts been lost.
So I don't think you can properly get the work done in these
magnetic situations by tracking the field energy. I do recall
certain situations where you seemed to get the right answer
but when you looked at it carefully, the SIGN was reversed.
So you did work on the magnets and ended up with LESS
field energy than you started out with. Look at, for example,
the gap energy of two C-shaped magnets as you rotate them
from NS-NS to NN-SS orientations. In the first case you have
field lines superposing and adding up, in the second case
you have field lines opposing and cancelling. And yet you have
to do work to get from the first orientation to the second. You
do all that work and you make the field lines go away. Where
is the energy now?
Marty
On Jan 28, 9:24 pm, "Don Kelly" <d...@shaw.ca> wrote:
Quote: Thank you for making me get off my butt and do some analysis (and also
correct some stupid errors).
I would like to correct part of what I said.
"With these conditions, the result is that the stored energy in the gap
(which is what we are really concerned with with regard to force and with
regard to what we can actually observe) rises to a peak (in this case when
the gap and magnet length are equal) and then falls off (which is not what
I expected) - and the internal stored energy in the magnet also does the
same- I will check this but I do note that at B or H =0 the magnet's stored
energy is 0 and the maximum energy point is somewhere in between -in fact a
situation close to that at maximum power transfer in a resistive circuit
appears to exist. "
This is not correct. I was introducing unnecessary complications as well as
some embarrassing mathematical asinities not worthy of a freshman.
In fact with the structure that I have indicated as well as the case of two
magnets facing each other (same thing but 2 of everything except cross
section), the force varies as the inverse of the square of (l+g) where l is
the magnet length and g is the gap.
The relationship delta(W field) =delta(Wmech) hold true (Wfield is the
stored energy in the field and Wmech is the external energy in opening the
gap by some delta(g)) If the gap is opened from 0 to infinity (neglecting
fringing etc) the stored energy and the total work done rises asymptotically
from 0 to a finite value. Results from the mechanical energy change and the
field energy change agree both in sign and magnitude.
Note that the magnet is working in the second quadrant of the B-H curve and
in the region where the permeability of the magnet is essentially muo. This
is the basis for saying that the flux in the gap is nearly constant for
small gaps. In this region, as the gap increases, the change in energy under
the B-H curve is positive (H negative and B going more negative).
The rest of what I said seems OK.
--
Don Kelly d...@shawcross.ca
remove the X to answer |
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| Don Kelly |
Posted: Fri Feb 02, 2007 3:41 am |
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----------------------------
"Math with Marty" <btestware@gmail.com> wrote in message
news:1170353965.198020.8170@v45g2000cwv.googlegroups.com...
Quote: Thanks for the clarification. I had read your earlier post with
interest, even though I didn't respond to it.
Now you are re-opening the basic controversy by saying that
according to your corrected calculation, you believe that the
work done by separating the magnet from the iron can be
found in the field energy.
I think you might be wrong about this. Consider two C-shaped
permanent magnets touching each other, north to south and
south to north. The field energy is totally contained within the
magnetic material, nothing leaking out to the air. And
there is quite a lot of field energy...I think it's significantly
MORE than double the internal field energy of the magnets
taken separately. There certainly seems to be a superposition
effect of one magnet's B-field times the other magnet's H-field.
Now DO SOME WORK by twisting the magnets around so
that they are north-against-north and south-against-south.
Are you saying there is MORE field energy in this configuration?
It's hard to see how that can be, since now, in the vicinity
of the pole faces, one magnet's B-field cancels the other magnet's.
It certainly seems to me that everywhere within the magnets there
is less field energy. As far as the field leaking outside, it's hard
to see how this would make up for wha'ts been lost.
So I don't think you can properly get the work done in these
magnetic situations by tracking the field energy. I do recall
certain situations where you seemed to get the right answer
but when you looked at it carefully, the SIGN was reversed.
So you did work on the magnets and ended up with LESS
field energy than you started out with. Look at, for example,
the gap energy of two C-shaped magnets as you rotate them
from NS-NS to NN-SS orientations. In the first case you have
field lines superposing and adding up, in the second case
you have field lines opposing and cancelling. And yet you have
to do work to get from the first orientation to the second. You
do all that work and you make the field lines go away. Where
is the energy now?
Marty
--------------------------
I looked at the single magnet with a perfect armature. For this situation
the total magnetisation is M and B=mu0(M+H) and for a 0 gap, H=0 and B=Bo =
the remanent flux density which is muo*M
Considering a gap g and no fringing as well as a perfect armature we will
have H*L +Hg*g =0 so H=-Hg(g/L) =Bg(G/l)/muo
Now we have B=Bg =mu0*M-B(g/L)leading to B(g+L)/g =mu0M and B=Bg =ML/(L+g)
At 0 gap, B=Bo -the remenant flux density which is muo* M
Note that ML can be treated as an mmf due to some unspecified current
source. Call it F
Now, just as in the electrically excited case, we have B=mu0*F/(L+g)
The effective gap is L+g because the magnet iron is in saturation.
The stored energy in the effective gap can be found and the force found from
that. One can then determine the external work in moving from one position
to another. Similarly, one can consider the change in stored energy in the
magnet as this takes place by considering the change in area under the B-H
curve of the magnet. In the region of interest this is easy to find noting
that we are working with B-Bo and H=(B-Bo)/muo and the product is +
Sure there is more stored energy than that because there is energy stored at
B=Bo due to the energy put in to get there in the first quadrant of the B -H
curve-BUT -we can't get at it. We are limited to the second quadrant where
opening the gap increases the stored energy. The maximum stored energy
will be where leakage determines the effective gap- but this is beyond the
limits of the simple model above.
To make a long story shorter- the increase in stored energy is equal to the
external work put in.
Now as to the 2 magnet situation where the magnets are aiding. In effect the
situation is as above but the total F=ML is doubled, and the magnet
effective length is also doubled. There will be 2 gaps
Now we have B=2muo*F/2(L+g) and the maximum B will be 2muo*F/2L =mu0*M =Bo
as before.
The situation is the same as using 2 C cores with a winding on each which
provides ML amp turns on each winding- or for two voltage sources behind
resistances where the voltages are aiding (2V=2I*R). It is also the same as
for the single gap, single magnet case as above where Lis replaced by 2L and
g is replaced by 2g.
The total field energy is twice that of a single magnet for any gap because
you have twice as long a magnet. Outside of this there is no magic
enhancement. What you see is the benefit of the longer effective magnet.
Take 2 or more of the small ceramic fridge magnets and see what load you can
pick up with 1, 2 or more magnets. It increases because L/g is larger and a
given B and force can be obtained at a larger distance.
---
Twist the magnets around. This results in F=0 and no flux common to the two
magnets. You now have a field structure where all the flux is leakage flux.
Detailed analysis of this requires a decent 3D flux plot rather than a
simplified analysis on the basis of constant areas and no leakage. If you
could find the change in stored energy with position you would be able to
determine the force. How much energy is stored in this situation depends on
the length and cross section of the air gaps between poles of each magnet.
In fact the internal energy will be higher than in the case with the 2
magnets facing each other at 0 gap but not likely as high (but not far from)
what it would be with the magnets far apart (where the interpole gaps
determine the operating point).
I'm not working with flux lines as they are a nice visualisation but are
virtually meaningless, but the basic answer is that there is more flux
between the poles of each C- the field configuration has changed. In
addition, the field lines are outside the magnet- not internal to it so
where they go doesn't really indicate what is happening with energy.
Compare the 2 electric circuit equivalents.
a)corresponding to magnets aiding
---------R-----o-------R-----
| | | current in R1 =0
and all current in top no leakage through Rl
+ Rl -
V | V
- | + |
|----------------o-------------|
b)opposing
---------R-----o-------R-----
| | |
+ Rl + Current in R1 is non zero -all
current from sources through this
V | V leakage resistor. Now all
depends on R1 which,in the magnetic
- | |- equivalent is hard
to find.
|----------------o------------|
As for sign there is no problem.
magnetic force = - change in stored energy with distance on the basis of B
constant
or
+ rate of change of coenergy with distance for mmf constant (usually easier)
This all comes from application of conservation of energy which, as far as I
know, has passed all tests successfully. If you are applying external work,
you are increasing the stored energy in a permanent magnet system.
Conservation of energy also means no free ride.
Don Kelly dhky@shawcross.ca
remove the X to answer
Quote:
On Jan 28, 9:24 pm, "Don Kelly" <d...@shaw.ca> wrote:
Thank you for making me get off my butt and do some analysis (and also
correct some stupid errors).
I would like to correct part of what I said.
"With these conditions, the result is that the stored energy in the gap
(which is what we are really concerned with with regard to force and with
regard to what we can actually observe) rises to a peak (in this case
when
the gap and magnet length are equal) and then falls off (which is not
what
I expected) - and the internal stored energy in the magnet also does the
same- I will check this but I do note that at B or H =0 the magnet's
stored
energy is 0 and the maximum energy point is somewhere in between -in fact
a
situation close to that at maximum power transfer in a resistive circuit
appears to exist. "
This is not correct. I was introducing unnecessary complications as well
as
some embarrassing mathematical asinities not worthy of a freshman.
In fact with the structure that I have indicated as well as the case of
two
magnets facing each other (same thing but 2 of everything except cross
section), the force varies as the inverse of the square of (l+g) where l
is
the magnet length and g is the gap.
The relationship delta(W field) =delta(Wmech) hold true (Wfield is the
stored energy in the field and Wmech is the external energy in opening
the
gap by some delta(g)) If the gap is opened from 0 to infinity (neglecting
fringing etc) the stored energy and the total work done rises
asymptotically
from 0 to a finite value. Results from the mechanical energy change and
the
field energy change agree both in sign and magnitude.
Note that the magnet is working in the second quadrant of the B-H curve
and
in the region where the permeability of the magnet is essentially muo.
This
is the basis for saying that the flux in the gap is nearly constant for
small gaps. In this region, as the gap increases, the change in energy
under
the B-H curve is positive (H negative and B going more negative).
The rest of what I said seems OK.
--
Don Kelly d...@shawcross.ca
remove the X to answer
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| Autymn D. C. |
Posted: Fri Feb 02, 2007 11:47 pm |
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On Feb 1, 11:41 pm, "Don Kelly" <d...@shaw.ca> wrote:
Quote: This all comes from application of conservation of energy which, as far as I
know, has passed all tests successfully. If you are applying external work,
you are increasing the stored energy in a permanent magnet system.
Conservation of energy also means no free ride.
more like none tests |
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| Marty |
Posted: Mon Feb 05, 2007 12:44 pm |
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Guest
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Quote: Sure there is more stored energy than that because there is energy stored at
B=Bo due to the energy put in to get there in the first quadrant of the B -H
curve-BUT -we can't get at it. We are limited to the second quadrant where
opening the gap increases the stored energy. The maximum stored energy
will be where leakage determines the effective gap- but this is beyond the
limits of the simple model above.
To make a long story shorter- the increase in stored energy is equal to the
external work put in.
(snip)
This all comes from application of conservation of energy which, as far as I
know, has passed all tests successfully. If you are applying external work,
you are increasing the stored energy in a permanent magnet system.
Conservation of energy also means no free ride.
Don Kelly
Hold on. The reason we're having this discussion is because
conservation
of energy seems to give the wrong answer. Do you remember that guy
Rudy who posted this question in the first place? He wanted someone
to analyze this with thermodynamics. Why? Maybe because you have
to look at the entropy of the magnet to get the right answer. Don, you
are ignoring some very clear problems with the conservation of energy.
It DOESN'T give the right answer, and sometimes when it SEEMS to,
you look more closely and you find the sign is wrong. This needs to
be explained.
If you are not convinced by the very clear example I gave previously,
then consider the rotary magnet configuration of a multipole motor.
The rotor and stator each have N-S-N-S-N-S...alternating poles.
When they are lined up north-versus-north, the field vectors CANCEL
and there is NO stored magnetic energy. When you allow it to rotate,
so north faces southy, the field vectors re-inforce and there is LOTS
of
field energy. How do you explain this by conservation of energy?
It doesn't help if you look at the internal energy of the iron, Once
again,
in the north-versus-north position, the rotor field goes against the
stator
field and vice versa, so the energy is LESS than in the north-south
orientation.
The only escape I can see at the moment is to consider that perhaps
in the north-south case, the ENTROPY of the magnet is much lower,
and that the work done in pushing the north poles into alignment goes
into T-deltaS work? That would have all kinds of implications: for
example,
every time your automotive ignition coil made a spark, the iron would
cool down slightly as the magnetic domains randomized themselves.
Is that how it really works?
marty |
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| Don Kelly |
Posted: Tue Feb 06, 2007 12:49 am |
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Guest
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"Marty" <marty@aptitude-testing.com> wrote in message
news:1170693884.052104.64850@k78g2000cwa.googlegroups.com...
Quote: Sure there is more stored energy than that because there is energy stored
at
B=Bo due to the energy put in to get there in the first quadrant of the
B -H
curve-BUT -we can't get at it. We are limited to the second quadrant
where
opening the gap increases the stored energy. The maximum stored energy
will be where leakage determines the effective gap- but this is beyond
the
limits of the simple model above.
To make a long story shorter- the increase in stored energy is equal to
the
external work put in.
(snip)
This all comes from application of conservation of energy which, as far
as I
know, has passed all tests successfully. If you are applying external
work,
you are increasing the stored energy in a permanent magnet system.
Conservation of energy also means no free ride.
Don Kelly
Hold on. The reason we're having this discussion is because
conservation
of energy seems to give the wrong answer. Do you remember that guy
Rudy who posted this question in the first place? He wanted someone
to analyze this with thermodynamics. Why? Maybe because you have
to look at the entropy of the magnet to get the right answer. Don, you
are ignoring some very clear problems with the conservation of energy.
It DOESN'T give the right answer, and sometimes when it SEEMS to,
you look more closely and you find the sign is wrong. This needs to
be explained.
------
I see no sign problems. Also please note that conservation of energy is, in
fact, the first law of thermodynamics.
I do see a problem in that the model for the two magnets facing each other
N-N must consider the leakage flux only as there is no "across the gap"
flux, and how this leakage changes with the gap. The area and the flux both
will be affected and the problem gets messy as the flux distribution is
definitely non-uniform. The stored energy within the magnets isn't going to
change that much as the B in the magnet will be depend on the near constant
total length of the leakage and magnet path but the area of this path will
decrease as the magnets are put closer together, (B^2)*A will increase so
the stored energy in the leakage path will increase. The work done by the
magnet as the gap decreased is negative (and the mechanical work is into the
magnet- i.e. stored -is positive). In the case where the magnets are N-S
there is no problem for small gaps but leakage also provides a limiting
case. Note also that when B=0, the stored energy in the magnet is maximum
because you are in the second quadrant of the B-H curve and as the gap
increases the H.dB is positive. This corresponds to the case where the
magnets are far apart with no leakage. With leakage the minimum B and
maximum stored energy is determined by the leakage. Analysis on an energy or
coenergy basis gives not only the right answers but also the right sign. The
big problem in doing this is finding the energy for a non-uniform
situation. Another approach than the energy approach is to use the concept
of shear forces at boundaries.
As for sign- I have been considering positive magnetic force in the
direction of an increase in gap.
In the case of the N-S magnets the mechanical work done BY the magnet is
negative as the force is opposite to the change in gap. and the stored
energy increases as the gap increases.
This fits with the change in operating point on the B-H curve. As I have
repeated, what happens depends on how the leakage flux path changes as well
as what goes on inside the magnet. Use of B^2/2muo times gap volume is good
only for small gaps where B can be considered uniform.
Note also that the energy viewpoint expresses magnetic force as the negative
of the partial derivative of stored energy with position for constant flux
or constant B --or as the partial derivative of coenergy with position for
constant mmf. The latter can be used for the permanent magnet case as there
is a virtual mmf M*length of iron. This is pretty standard textbook stuff.
---------------
Quote:
If you are not convinced by the very clear example I gave previously,
then consider the rotary magnet configuration of a multipole motor.
The rotor and stator each have N-S-N-S-N-S...alternating poles.
When they are lined up north-versus-north, the field vectors CANCEL
and there is NO stored magnetic energy. When you allow it to rotate,
so north faces southy, the field vectors re-inforce and there is LOTS
of
field energy. How do you explain this by conservation of energy?
---------
Note that the rotary magnet device (not a motor) is N-N, S-S there is no
mutual flux- true as in the C magnet case. However, the flux paths for the
rotor and stator are exclusive and consist only of leakage paths. In other
words the flux is directed mainly between N and S on the stator and on the
rotor (some N-S from one to the other as well) These leakage paths
determine the stored energy at that time.
Sure there are forces that exist -both radially and tangentially -the
latter being of interest. If this force moves the rotor then there is
mechanical work being done by the magnet and a corresponding reduction in
stored energy in the magnet. Now when the poles are lined up N-S, you are at
the minimum internal stored energy position (not LOTS so this is where I
disagree strongly with you) - as close as you can get on the B-H curve to
H=0 and B= the remanent flux density - i.e at the bottom of the local
magnetic hill. Of course there is still stored energy in the gap and in the
magnet but as a PM device will not leave the second quadrant of the B-H
curve, you cannot access this and for all intents and purposes it can be
called 0.
So the PM rotor- stator device reaches a stable steady state situation where
it is at the minimum energy position and stays there until some external
source moves it away. Release it and it converts stored energy back to
mechanical energy to return to the stable position.
Of course such a device, with permanent magnets only, will not run as a
motor. for that you need an external source so you get electromechanical
energy conversion where the magnet, essentially acts as a catalyst.
------------
Quote:
It doesn't help if you look at the internal energy of the iron, Once
again,
in the north-versus-north position, the rotor field goes against the
stator
field and vice versa, so the energy is LESS than in the north-south
orientation.
---------
You are looking only at the field in the gap where cancellation occurs. The
flux across the gap is 0 so what is left but the non-uniform flux which
does not cross the gap? in other words only the leakage flux is of concern.
Now you have forces "between lines of force" acting to separate them.
(quotation marks used as lines of force per se are rather meaningless).
-----
Quote:
The only escape I can see at the moment is to consider that perhaps
in the north-south case, the ENTROPY of the magnet is much lower,
and that the work done in pushing the north poles into alignment goes
into T-deltaS work? That would have all kinds of implications: for
example,
every time your automotive ignition coil made a spark, the iron would
cool down slightly as the magnetic domains randomized themselves.
Is that how it really works?
-------
I doubt it. In the inition coil there are two things-
a) good transformer steel which has a high permeability and a small
hysteresis loop by design. In fact as the core is cycled magnetically there
will be over each cycle, electrocal energy is put into stored energy and
lost again- appearing as heat (hysteresis losses) so it gets warmer, not
cooler.
In the magnet-provided that operation is along the top of it's B-H curve,
there is little to no hysteresis loss (by design) as the partial hysteresis
loop is negligably small in modern magnets and the magnet is not being
cycled through a full hysteresis loop (the fatter the loop the better which
is opposite to the conditions for non-permanent magnets or electromagnetic
devices). Only if the magnet is pushed off the flat top of the curve will
there be a hysteresis effect for one cycle, and in that case, there is some
demagnetisation or permanent loss of energy (to heat). With proper use of
the magnet material and proper dimensioning, you don't get into this region.
b) In the ignition coil, the hysteresis loop is partial but not negligable
and there is cycling forced by the switching of the electrical energy
source, and losses occur. Isn't this where entropy comes in. (my thermo is
much rustier than my electromagnetic energy conversion background).
--
Don
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| Marty |
Posted: Tue Feb 06, 2007 3:56 pm |
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Guest
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Quote:
------
I see no sign problems. Also please note that conservation of energy is, in
fact, the first law of thermodynamics.
There is a problem. If the world were as you describe it,
then there would be more magnetic energy in a pair
of counter-wound magnets placed north-versus-north
than in the same pair of magnets lined up "properly".
Then why don't the people who make ignition coils
wind them that way, with two counter-acting coils on
the same magnetic core?
For that matter, if there is more energy in a magnetic loop
with a large air gap, why don't the people who make ignition
coils wind them on a core with a large gap? I haven't taken
one apart recently, but I'm guessing the core is a closed
rectangular toroidal form. Do you doubt it?
marty |
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| Don Kelly |
Posted: Wed Feb 07, 2007 1:48 am |
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"Marty" <marty@aptitude-testing.com> wrote in message
news:1170791761.108000.317640@q2g2000cwa.googlegroups.com...
Quote:
------
I see no sign problems. Also please note that conservation of energy is,
in
fact, the first law of thermodynamics.
There is a problem. If the world were as you describe it,
then there would be more magnetic energy in a pair
of counter-wound magnets placed north-versus-north
than in the same pair of magnets lined up "properly".
------------
Possible- depending on the permeability of the iron and the leakage. In the
case of electromagnets (you did say wound) it really isn't all that
important as the source of any electromechanical energy is either the
electrical source or the mechanical source- NOT the stored energy in the
magnetic system. ------------
Quote:
Then why don't the people who make ignition coils
wind them that way, with two counter-acting coils on
the same magnetic core?
---
a) In fact, they do- any current in the secondary actually does oppose the
current in the primary so, the coils are counteracting. This is the same in
any transformer (and the ignition coil IS a transformer). Any secondary
current produces an mmf which requires a cancelling mmf produced by the
primary current.
b)The ignition coil is not a permanent magnet device. It has electrical
input and output. It has also relatively small stored energy (average over a
cycle of operation will be 0).
c) While the input is DC it is switched DC and the switching is designed to
give high di/dt voltage in the secondary- in fact it sees a non-sinusoidal
AC as well as some base primary DC (which doesn't enter into the energy
conversion except in that it establishes a no signal operating point in the
first quadrant of the magnetisation curve).
d) In the ignition coil the iron is operating below saturation (mu >>mu0)
and generally in the first quadrant of the B-H curve, cycling around a minor
loop. In a permanent magnet, the iron is operating through part of the
second quadrant of the B-H curve where mu =mu0.
Quote:
For that matter, if there is more energy in a magnetic loop
with a large air gap, why don't the people who make ignition
coils wind them on a core with a large gap? I haven't taken
one apart recently, but I'm guessing the core is a closed
rectangular toroidal form. Do you doubt it?
-------------
No. but you are comparing apples and oranges.
The ignition coil has an external electrical source. The electrical energy
in is converted to electrical-not mechanical- energy out. The core
material is designed to have a hysteresis loop with a small area with low
coercive force and such cores make lousy permanent magnets. The design
maximises the flux per ampere. A permanent magnet is designed to have a fat
hysteresis loop with high coercive force. The flux per ampere is not
pertinent. The material used would make a lousy ignition coil. In addition,
the energy that is produced by the secondary is provided, not by the stored
energy in the magnet but by the electrical input.
There are many texts which show the energy balances. The MIT open learning
site deals, somewhat more complexly than necessary, with this.
You would be slightly better off in considering a lifting magnet using an
electrical source. However, this is also different (apples and pears) from
the permanent magnet as in this case the iron path has high permeability so
that the total amp turns are essentially concentrated in the gap. More
importantly, the difference between this and a permanent magnet is that
there IS an electrical input -the field acting as a "catalyst" in the
conversion with cycling of the field being a source of loss. Force can be
found as I expressed it before. Note that for a fixed input current the gap
flux density does decrease with the inverse of the gap as you originally
stated -because the iron is negligable. In a permanent magnet the iron is
not negligable (mu--> muo), and there is no external source.
--
Don |
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| Autymn D. C. |
Posted: Wed Feb 07, 2007 2:44 am |
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Would it be better for a core to flap its permeability between soft
and hard over the workloop? |
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| Don Kelly |
Posted: Wed Feb 07, 2007 6:49 pm |
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"Autymn D. C." <lysdexia@sbcglobal.net> wrote in message
news:1170830657.363756.79430@s48g2000cws.googlegroups.com...
Quote: Would it be better for a core to flap its permeability between soft
and hard over the workloop?
----------------
Please clarify this. Do you mean between high and low permeability? If so,
in most cases, that would result in inefficient use of the iron-i.e.
driving the core into saturation. If you mean a core with areas of high and
low coercive force, that is done in a hysteresis synchronous motor.
--
Don Kelly dhky@shawcross.ca
remove the X to answer
---------------------------- |
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| Autymn D. C. |
Posted: Thu Feb 08, 2007 6:02 am |
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On Feb 7, 2:49 pm, "Don Kelly" <d...@shaw.ca> wrote:
Quote: "Autymn D. C." <lysde...@sbcglobal.net> wrote in messagenews:1170830657.363756.79430@s48g2000cws.googlegroups.com...
Would it be better for a core to flap its permeability between soft
and hard over the workloop?
Please clarify this. Do you mean between high and low permeability? If so,
in most cases, that would result in inefficient use of the iron-i.e.
driving the core into saturation. If you mean a core with areas of high and
low coercive force, that is done in a hysteresis synchronous motor.
The latter--if I wantd a core to act as a kimera between a magnetic
tank and a capacitant-inductor. I guess I mean a magnetic flux
capacitor... |
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| Don Kelly |
Posted: Fri Feb 09, 2007 12:49 am |
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Guest
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----------------------------
"Autymn D. C." <lysdexia@sbcglobal.net> wrote in message
news:1170928944.347574.252140@m58g2000cwm.googlegroups.com...
Quote: On Feb 7, 2:49 pm, "Don Kelly" <d...@shaw.ca> wrote:
"Autymn D. C." <lysde...@sbcglobal.net> wrote in
messagenews:1170830657.363756.79430@s48g2000cws.googlegroups.com...
Would it be better for a core to flap its permeability between soft
and hard over the workloop?
Please clarify this. Do you mean between high and low permeability? If
so,
in most cases, that would result in inefficient use of the iron-i.e.
driving the core into saturation. If you mean a core with areas of high
and
low coercive force, that is done in a hysteresis synchronous motor.
The latter--if I wantd a core to act as a kimera between a magnetic
tank and a capacitant-inductor. I guess I mean a magnetic flux
capacitor...
-----------------
In answer to your question, if I want the coercive force to change, it would
be necessary to change the material in the magnetic loop. This presents
certain problems. It does occur in the hysteresis motor at speeds other
than synchronous in that the stator field moves with respect to the rotor
which has two different materials. You won't get one size fits all material.
So - No -if the core is stationary. with respect to the field source.
As for the rest:
Kimera?
magnetic tank?
capacitant inductor?
magnetic flux capacitor?
Sorry, The above terms make no sense to me. They appear to be a hodgepodge
of contradictory terms. Please clarify what you mean.
Do you mean something that can be controlled to appear either capacitive or
inductive? If so there are devices that can do this. Saturable reactors in
parallel with capacitors will do this. These donot involve a change in
coercive force but do involve permeability changes.
If you mean an inductor that acts as a capacitor or a capacitor that acts as
an inductor- the answer is --forget it.
--
Don Kelly dhky@shawcross.ca
remove the X to answer
> |
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| Guest |
Posted: Fri Feb 09, 2007 1:15 am |
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Don Kelly <dhky@shaw.ca> wrote:
Quote: ----------------------------
"Autymn D. C." <lysdexia@sbcglobal.net> wrote in message
news:1170928944.347574.252140@m58g2000cwm.googlegroups.com...
On Feb 7, 2:49 pm, "Don Kelly" <d...@shaw.ca> wrote:
"Autymn D. C." <lysde...@sbcglobal.net> wrote in
messagenews:1170830657.363756.79430@s48g2000cws.googlegroups.com...
Would it be better for a core to flap its permeability between soft
and hard over the workloop?
Please clarify this. Do you mean between high and low permeability? If
so,
in most cases, that would result in inefficient use of the iron-i.e.
driving the core into saturation. If you mean a core with areas of high
and
low coercive force, that is done in a hysteresis synchronous motor.
The latter--if I wantd a core to act as a kimera between a magnetic
tank and a capacitant-inductor. I guess I mean a magnetic flux
capacitor...
-----------------
In answer to your question, if I want the coercive force to change, it would
be necessary to change the material in the magnetic loop. This presents
certain problems. It does occur in the hysteresis motor at speeds other
than synchronous in that the stator field moves with respect to the rotor
which has two different materials. You won't get one size fits all material.
So - No -if the core is stationary. with respect to the field source.
As for the rest:
Kimera?
magnetic tank?
capacitant inductor?
magnetic flux capacitor?
Sorry, The above terms make no sense to me. They appear to be a hodgepodge
of contradictory terms. Please clarify what you mean.
Do you mean something that can be controlled to appear either capacitive or
inductive? If so there are devices that can do this. Saturable reactors in
parallel with capacitors will do this. These donot involve a change in
coercive force but do involve permeability changes.
If you mean an inductor that acts as a capacitor or a capacitor that acts as
an inductor- the answer is --forget it.
--
Don Kelly dhky@shawcross.ca
remove the X to answer
Gyrator.
Though it is electronic trickery that makes it work.
--
Jim Pennino
Remove .spam.sux to reply. |
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| Autymn D. C. |
Posted: Fri Feb 09, 2007 9:03 am |
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Guest
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On Feb 8, 8:49 pm, "Don Kelly" <d...@shaw.ca> wrote:
Quote: Do you mean something that can be controlled to appear either capacitive or
inductive? If so there are devices that can do this. Saturable reactors in
parallel with capacitors will do this. These donot involve a change in
coercive force but do involve permeability changes.
No, the component may switch between magnetic capacitance and magnetic
inductance, which would differ only on coercance.
Quote: If you mean an inductor that acts as a capacitor or a capacitor that acts as
an inductor- the answer is --forget it.
Forget what, pièzoelèctrets?
-Aut |
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| Don Kelly |
Posted: Sat Feb 10, 2007 1:19 am |
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Guest
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<jimp@specsol.spam.sux.com> wrote in message
news:m2ct94-a37.ln1@mail.specsol.com...
Quote: Don Kelly <dhky@shaw.ca> wrote:
----------------------------
"Autymn D. C." <lysdexia@sbcglobal.net> wrote in message
news:1170928944.347574.252140@m58g2000cwm.googlegroups.com...
On Feb 7, 2:49 pm, "Don Kelly" <d...@shaw.ca> wrote:
"Autymn D. C." <lysde...@sbcglobal.net> wrote in
messagenews:1170830657.363756.79430@s48g2000cws.googlegroups.com...
Would it be better for a core to flap its permeability between soft
and hard over the workloop?
Please clarify this. Do you mean between high and low permeability?
If
so,
in most cases, that would result in inefficient use of the iron-i.e.
driving the core into saturation. If you mean a core with areas of
high
and
low coercive force, that is done in a hysteresis synchronous motor.
The latter--if I wantd a core to act as a kimera between a magnetic
tank and a capacitant-inductor. I guess I mean a magnetic flux
capacitor...
-----------------
In answer to your question, if I want the coercive force to change, it
would
be necessary to change the material in the magnetic loop. This presents
certain problems. It does occur in the hysteresis motor at speeds other
than synchronous in that the stator field moves with respect to the rotor
which has two different materials. You won't get one size fits all
material.
So - No -if the core is stationary. with respect to the field source.
As for the rest:
Kimera?
magnetic tank?
capacitant inductor?
magnetic flux capacitor?
Sorry, The above terms make no sense to me. They appear to be a
hodgepodge
of contradictory terms. Please clarify what you mean.
Do you mean something that can be controlled to appear either capacitive
or
inductive? If so there are devices that can do this. Saturable reactors
in
parallel with capacitors will do this. These donot involve a change in
coercive force but do involve permeability changes.
If you mean an inductor that acts as a capacitor or a capacitor that acts
as
an inductor- the answer is --forget it.
--
Don Kelly dhky@shawcross.ca
remove the X to answer
Gyrator.
Though it is electronic trickery that makes it work.
--
Jim Pennino
Remove .spam.sux to reply.
You are right - I was thinking of a non-electronic device. The gyrator does
represent the "impedance" of an inductor . After all, what is the difference
between the admittance of a capacitor and the impedance of an inductor? jwC
vs jwL?
However when one is thinking of permeability and coercive force etc, the
gyrator doesn't cut it.
--
Don Kelly dhky@shawcross.ca
remove the X to answer
---------------------------- |
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