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John Edser
Posted: Fri Jan 19, 2007 8:50 am
Guest
Aatu Koskensilta aatu.koskensilta@xortec.fi wrote:-

Quote:
JE:-
I strongly suggest you replace your consistent rhetoric (previously I
was
accused of "babbling" and now I am accused of "metaphorical rambling")
with
NON EVASION.

I have not pretended to address your rambling, or if you like the term
better, babbling, with any arguments.

JE:-
They are both your own rhetorical terms where neither are appropriate and
you know it. The only ethical thing for you to do is to apologize and
respond rationally to the arguments presented. In the sciences you discuss
and test, you do NOT just dictate. By what divine right do you simply
dictate that I was only "rambling" and "babbling"? This happens to be a
science list so we do not include arguments by divine right here, even by
divine mathematicians :-)


Quote:
Indeed, there is no point for me
to do so, since my interests lie solely in the incompleteness theorems
and their invocations by your fine self and others.

JE:-
Are you arguing that what Gödel discovered has no valid application outside
of mathematics what so ever? Please do not attempt to evade this question
and please do not answer ambiguously.


Quote:
Going on about
"irreversible linkage", "tautologicity" and what have you, in relation
to the incompleteness theorems is pointless, unless you somehow connect
your ideas to the actual mathematical content of the theorems. Otherwise
you might as well quote the fundamental theorem of arithmetic or
Dirichlet's theorem.

JE:-
You claim to be a logician yet you seem not to have the faintest idea as to
what logic DOES: separates a sequitur from a non sequitur THAT IS ALL.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Non_sequitur_%28logic%29

Any valid sequitur can have TWO forms: reversible and irreversible.

PLEASE indicate CLEARLY if you agree or disagree.


Language and computer programming can only allow a reversible sequitur as a
nested subset of an entirely irreversible sequitur. The sentence: "the cat
sat on the mat" does not have the same meaning as "the mat sat on the cat"
simply because subject and predicate cannot be reversed within any rational
language (or computer program). If you reverse them then you reverse their
critical set nesting. If I just define a cat to be mat, then a mat is also
just a cat where this entirely reversible sequitur (represented by just a
set intersection) is known as a TAUTOLOGY. Tautologies can be expanded
indefinitely becoming amazingly complex (as they are within mathematics).
However, they can have no rational meaning unless they become predicated to
something else in an entirely non reversible way: e.g. the matcat thing is
black but not all black things are matcat things. Only now can a matcat
claim to make rational sense. The predicate "black" constitutes a critical
induction from which the matcat thing must be able to be deduced. In the
sciences this allows inductions to be tested to refutation via ANY deduction
from them. All of reasoning remains based on just this one SIMPLE
proposition: IF the induction is true then ANY valid deduction from it MUST
also be true BUT NOT THE REVERSE.

I remain flabbergasted that you can see no connection between the above and
what Gödel discovered which Fanzen puts in (non reversible English) to
mean:-

"The mathematician Godel proved that a system of axioms can never be
based on itself: statements from outside the system must be used in order to
prove its consistency."

Please very carefully explain to all of us here why any rationalist cannot
just retort: Well, very OBVIOUSLY only because ALL of the axioms of
mathematics were and remain, TAUTOLOGIES. IF this is NOT true then please
provide just a single axiom which is not a tautology.

Your continued pretence that tautological sequiturs have no connection
what-so-ever to what Gödel discovered remains ludicrous. It appears to me
you are attempting to evade this issue simply because you do not wish
mathematics to be proven to be just a tautology (especially by Gödel). This
is why I said the thing I respect most about him was his complete honesty.
It takes real guts to prove that what the subject matter you have spent your
life on was not consistent. It takes even more guts to say WHY. It appears
you remain gutless.


Quote:
I have read the article with exasperation. AT NO TIME does Torkel
Franzén
even mention the concept of a TAUTOLOGY let alone include
how it necessarily contrasts to a NON tautology within any
RATIONAL system.

Of course not. There is no apparent connection between these things and
the actual mathematical content of the incompleteness theorem.

JE:-
Well, here we CAN detail just one of our differences: no APPARENT
connection. This does not prove that there is NO CONNECTION. Why have you
closed your mind to any argument which even attempts to connect them?


Quote:
The closest we seem to get to this seems to be:
"Gödel's proof makes essential use of what is called the diagonal lemma
for
T. This is a general result about T stating that for every formula B(x)
with
one free variable x - meaning that B(x) asserts something about the
unspecified number x - a formula A (known as a fixpoint for B(x)) can be
constructed such that

T |- A<=>B(#A)"

Perhaps you might to like explain why "<=>" does not mean "entirely
reversible" proving just a tautologous logical linkage?

Here Torkel is just explaining a technical theorem pertaining certain
formal theories T. According to the diagonal lemma, as he explains, for
any formula B(x) we can find a formula A such that it is provable in T
that A is true just in case the Gödel number of A has the property
expressed by B(x). What this has to do with "entirely reversible" or
"tautologous logical linkage" cannot be determined unless you provide
some way of relating these notions to the standard logical notions of
formal provability, equivalence, Gödel numberings and so forth.

JE:-
Yet again, you have simply evaded my question.

"Perhaps you might to like explain why "<=>" does not mean "entirely
reversible" proving just a tautologous logical linkage?"

Please ANSWER the ******* question.

Quote:
Franzen clearly noted what he considers to be a CORRECT statement in
WORDS
(i.e. as a non reversible rational proposition with a subject and a
predicate) as to what Gödel had discovered:

"The mathematician Godel proved that a system of axioms can never be
based
on itself: statements from outside the system must be used in order to
prove
its consistency."

This is indeed a correct statement: a consistent system satisfying
certain technical conditions can only be proved consistent by using
principles not contained in the system. However, what this has to do
with "a non reversible rational proposition with a subject and a
predicate" remains completely obscure.

JE:-
"Obscure" to you but not to me (or ANY rationalist). Please attempt to open
your mind to arguments that you appear to reject only because you dislike
them.

Please note: Franzen has acknowledged above that what Gödel discovered does
have valid applications outside of mathematics (which has to be true to
remain consistent to what he discovered).

Please list these valid applications for sbe reader's to view.


Quote:
Your argument that "though there are certain marginal set theories with
a
universal set, such a set is not a part of ordinary mathematics or set
theory" was not correct.

Sure it was, as you will find out for yourself if you choose to study
set theory.

JE:-
Every reference I have on the logic of mathematics defines a universal set
by SIMPLE NECESSITY. This gave rise to Russell's Paradox (which was just an
infinite regress "solution" i.e. was just no solution at al) and
subsequently, to Gödel's proof that mathematics cannot be consistent.
Gödel added nothing POSITIVE to Russell and Whitehead's proposed "solution".

Quote:
It remains easy to see: the universal set is the defined PREDICATE, i.e.
the
INDUCTIVE ASSUMPTION from which everything else exists as just a
deduction
(including all tautologies nested within it).

As usually understood a universal set V is a set such that for every
object a, a is a member of V. The existence of such a set is, on the
face of it, a purely mathematical supposition -

JE:-
Dear oh dear...Russell and Whitehead demonstrated that to be consistent V
must be a set of an even more universal set, which itself has to be subset
of an even more universal set, "ad finitum" . In other words every set is a
universal set but some are more universal than others! Now WHERE did I hear
something very-much-like-that before?

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Infinite_regress

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Russell's_paradox

Why doesn't the following: "Russell's Paradox", "infinite regress" even
leave your lips? Do they remain sealed against these just as they remain
sealed against the term most dreaded by pure mathematicians, "tautology"?

Quote:
...a false one, as sets are
usually conceived in mathematics, as it happens.

JE:-
Incorrect. The universal set WAS a conception of physics but remains just a
misconception of mathematics. The science of physics induced the universe
concept and NOT the non science of mathematicians.


John Edser
Independent Researcher

edser@ozemail.com.au
John Edser
Posted: Fri Jan 19, 2007 8:50 am
Guest
"Entertained by my own EIMC" write_eimc@ozemail.com.au wrote:-

Quote:
just to be able to replicate genes phylogenetically allowing better
"phylogenetic survival"! IOW the Darwinian selectee is exactly one
fertile
organism and not just any organism.

I don't know if I can agree or not until you tell me (us) what you mean by
"fertile".

JE:-
Simply: capable of reproducing itself. Note that if the "self" being
"reproduced" was fertile (because it had to be!) then any reproduction must
also be fertile to VALIDLY represent a "reproduction". IOW an infertile
reproduction of a fertile form can only constitute an INCOMPLETE
reproduction to remain self consistent (not contradict itself).
This provides a frame of reference that enables biological science to be
able to discriminate between growth and reproduction. In ordinary parlance
an immature form has to "grow up" to become an "adult". After it does so
adults "stop growing" and start "reproducing".


Quote:
Do you mean it in the sense of "viable" - as in "having the potential to
produce likewise viable offspring"?
If you do then my EPT recognition has always, and perfectly obviously
overlapped with yours.

JE:-
I define reproduction as exactly that: a reproduction, where what was
reproduced has to be fertile only because the parent which reproduced had to
be. This is a 100% required but only a "duh" proposition of evolutionary
theory. Put in an entirely gene centric way: genes which can only replicate
within an organism can only be proposed to have a zero _consistent_ fitness.
I will illustrate this with the example of sterile eusocial forms. W. D.
Hamilton allowed these forms to 1) have a fitness which they cannot have and
2) able to donate the resources which underwrote it. This proved Hamilton's
rule was NOT consistent _because_ sterile forms can only be proposed to have
a zero _consistent_ fitness. The proof that Hamilton's Rule is not
consistent is easily: it has no frame of reference. The rule was and remains
just a tautology of mathematics within which organism fitness selfishness
cannot possibly be claimed to remain distinguishable from organism fitness
altruism (Hamilton et al incorrectly continue to claim that it can be). Of
course, this renders all applications of Hamilton's Rule and ANY rationale
dependent on it, e.g. Dawkins' "Selfish Gene", Trivers' "Reciprocal
Altruism" and Wilson's "Sociobiology" to name just three were and remain,
INVALID. IOW billions of dollars of research has been wasted on this over
the last 50 years or so.



Quote:
----

IMHO, it is impossible to insist that organisms [of populations that
evolve
by
way of the Principle of Natural (heritable variation) and Selection] who,
individually, were
*not even potentially* reproductive (hence, were never "candidates for
'ancestorhood' or 'forebearship'" Smile) were "selectees" [i.e., were
selected
positively or negatively from by opportune and adverse types of
pressures/challenges in "individual life|space|time" - as part of the
Evolutionary Patterning Totality], and to be 'evolution-theoretically
sane'
at the same time. Wink

JE:-
All rational concepts have to remain consistent. Ask our residing logician.
Only a fertile organism can provide selectee consistency within evolutionary
theory because absolutely nothing else can. Gene centric Neo Darwinism has
thrown out consistency in order to become mathematics e.g. Hamilton's Rule
and exclusive to sbe: Felsenstein's Paradox (see post).


I insist Gödel would have pointed out that the cost of reducing evolutionary
science to only mathematics will be _extraordinary_: the reduction of
consistent Darwinian theory non consistent gene centric evolutionary theory
based entirely on Hamilton's tautologous inclusive fitness.

Regards,

John Edser
Independent Researcher

edser@ozemail.com.au
John Wilkins
Posted: Fri Jan 19, 2007 8:50 am
Guest
John Edser <edser@ozemail.com.au> wrote:

Quote:
j.wilkins1@uq.edu.au (John Wilkins) wrote:-

This issue has been done to death already, IMO:

http://www.talkorigins.org/faqs/evolphil/tautology.html

That's an incredibly bad article, that needs to be revised and
updated.
One day.

JE:-
I agree entirely. Who wrote it, Dr L Moran?

Some undergraduate...

JE:-
Really, from what university?


He would have been at Monash University at the time.
--
John S. Wilkins, Postdoctoral Research Fellow, Biohumanities Project
University of Queensland - Blog: scienceblogs.com/evolvingthoughts
"He used... sarcasm. He knew all the tricks, dramatic irony, metaphor,
bathos, puns, parody, litotes and... satire. He was vicious."
Tim Tyler
Posted: Fri Jan 19, 2007 8:50 am
Guest
Aatu Koskensilta wrote:
Quote:
John Edser wrote:

I strongly suggest you replace your consistent rhetoric (previously I was
accused of "babbling" and now I am accused of "metaphorical rambling") with
NON EVASION.

I have not pretended to address your rambling, or if you like the term
better, babbling, with any arguments. Indeed, there is no point for me
to do so, since my interests lie solely in the incompleteness theorems
and their invocations by your fine self and others. Going on about
"irreversible linkage", "tautologicity" and what have you, in relation
to the incompleteness theorems is pointless, unless you somehow connect
your ideas to the actual mathematical content of the theorems. [...]

One problem I see with this is that the connection with
the supposed topic of discussion (biological evolution)
grows pretty tenuous.

Godel's theorem originally came up here recently because it
has been claimed (Lucas, Penrose) that it places limits on
machines which mean that they cannot perform the same
functions that the human mind can - and therefore are
unlikely to ever compete with our species for its ecological
niche - unless they can /also/ master some mystical/quantum
do-dah.

I have claimed that is baseless nonsense: Godel's theorems
are esoteric math about the completeness of axiomatic systems
that has diddley-squat to do with whether machines can match
and exceed the capabilities of modern humans.

Discussion of Godel's theorem which *doesn't* relate to this
whole issue will probably interest only a minority of subscribers.

People being attracted from abroad by debatable material
in John's posts is all very well - but my council to most
of them would be: please don't feed the Edser.
--
__________
|im |yler http://timtyler.org/ tim@tt1lock.org Remove lock to reply.
John Edser
Posted: Fri Jan 19, 2007 8:50 am
Guest
"g" <gillawton@earthlink.net>

Quote:
"g" <gillawton@earthlink.net
JE:-
Gil, this is a science list and not just a logic or mathematics list.
What
is required of everybody here, including myself and Mr Koskensilta, are
the
following three things.


i) Defined terms.

ii) Use of self consistent arguments (no contradictions allowed).

iii) Provide verifiable and refutable premises not just premises which
can be verified or non verified.

If I label terms differently (which I take great pains to avoid doing
but
I
may have to define new concepts with new labels because the concept has
not
been previously employed) then all that has to be done is for the
respondent
to provide the more accepted label.


Quote:
John,
Much good will and much deserved respect.

But with all due good will and deserved respect, please allow me to assert
that my best efforts, so far, to believe that any human could define any
"natural" universal set would require that he know all things within that
set, lest he fail to have tweaked his definition sufficiently to encompass
the very last twit of it.

JE:-
Gil,
Any valid 100% self consistent induction of a universal set simply requires
a consistent definition of one (any one), i.e. one which includes a defined
"everything" _as well as itself_ as this set. Primitive tribes define the
universe as just their tribe. Primitive people on islands defined it as just
their island and the surrounding sea. We once defined it as just our earth
with the sun going and planets around it enclosed within crystalline
spheres. Non evolutionists define it to be some magic being. Science defines
it as all the laws of nature. Mathematicians define one only because they
HAVE TO and then forget about it as-quickly-as-possible:-) The list of could
be-universal-sets remains endless. All that concerns the rationalist is can
any of them be tested to refutation?

The universal set defined but unused within mathematics is an inductive
proposition of PHYSICS and *NOT* of mathematics. Russell's paradox attempted
to assume that the universal set must NOT contain itself so (predictably) he
only ended up with just an infinite regress (a tautology). This is the
empirical equivalent of Russell staring at himself in bewilderment between
two parallel mirrors :-)

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Russell's_paradox


The whole point of any self consistent proposition is not to enter
Epimenides paradox (absolutely contradict yourself), i.e. any proposition of
a universal set must also contain itself otherwise it does.


http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Epimenides_paradox


Quote:
snip

What I do not personally ACCEPT, albeit I approve with much enthusiasm
YOUR right to accept it, if you wish -- is that there can be "the"
definition
of anything in nature derivable by any human mind, nor "the" definition of
anything in pure logic derived by any human mind.

JE:-
You appear to be doing a "David Hume": deleting induction (giving yourself a
cortical lobotomy) simply because you cannot explain it.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Problem_of_induction


In the sciences (NOT MATHEMATICS) many CONTESTING definitions exist about
EVERYTHING (including what is a definition) only because they can be
separated by EMPIRICAL testing. Either we get off our arses and simply get
on with it or we just tautologically contemplate our own navels :-)

Regards,

John Edser
Independent Researcher

edser@ozemail.com.au
William Morse
Posted: Sat Jan 20, 2007 10:32 am
Guest
"g" <gillawton@earthlink.net> wrote in news:eoosu5$3b3$1
@darwin.ediacara.org:

Quote:

"John Wilkins" <j.wilkins1@uq.edu.au> wrote in message
news:eolnpd$29es$1@darwin.ediacara.org...

(MUCHISIMOS SNIPPOS)

That's my stand this week, anyway.

Well, your this-week-stand surely reads like a carefully studied
treatment of it. Well received.

Yes, Dr. John did a nice job on that one. If you are interested, Dawkins
went into some detail on the various definitions of fitness in the chapter
An Agony in Five Fits in "The Extended Phenotype".

Yours,

Bill Morse
John Edser
Posted: Sat Jan 20, 2007 4:05 pm
Guest
Tim Tyler seemysig@cyberspace.org wrote:-


Quote:
I have not pretended to address your rambling, or if you like the term
better, babbling, with any arguments. Indeed, there is no point for me
to do so, since my interests lie solely in the incompleteness theorems
and their invocations by your fine self and others. Going on about
"irreversible linkage", "tautologicity" and what have you, in relation
to the incompleteness theorems is pointless, unless you somehow connect
your ideas to the actual mathematical content of the theorems. [...]

One problem I see with this is that the connection with
the supposed topic of discussion (biological evolution)
grows pretty tenuous.

Godel's theorem originally came up here recently because it
has been claimed (Lucas, Penrose) that it places limits on
machines which mean that they cannot perform the same
functions that the human mind can - and therefore are
unlikely to ever compete with our species for its ecological
niche - unless they can /also/ master some mystical/quantum
do-dah.

I have claimed that is baseless nonsense: Godel's theorems
are esoteric math about the completeness of axiomatic systems
that has diddley-squat to do with whether machines can match
and exceed the capabilities of modern humans.

Discussion of Godel's theorem which *doesn't* relate to this
whole issue will probably interest only a minority of subscribers.

People being attracted from abroad by debatable material
in John's posts is all very well - but my council to most
of them would be: please don't feed the Edser.

JE:-
I will firstly deal with any substance within Mr Tyler's post and
subsequently with this despicable act of denigration.

1. The substance:
Tyler's proposition that these theorems are just "esoteric math about the
completeness of axiomatic systems that has diddley-squat to do with whether
machines can match and exceed the capabilities of modern humans" remains NON
consistent with what Gödel actually discovered. IOW what Tyler wrote here
remains CONTRADITORY (which does NOT surprise me). Here is the proof: Torkel
Franzén (who I think most agree remains accurate) described in words (not in
just mathematics because this is not possible) what Gödel discovered:

"The mathematician Gödel proved that a system of axioms can never be based
on itself: statements from outside the system must be used in order to prove
its consistency."

Please note the following:

1) Propositions of mathematics and propositions OUTSIDE of mathematics are
required for Gödel's proofs to make any RATIONAL sense, i.e. not just
propositions within mathematics. This is because Gödel cannot rationally
claim to know what mathematics does not know within just the system of
mathematics and remain consistent to what he claims to have discovered.

2) Propositions within mathematics cannot express any propositions which are
outside of mathematics otherwise they must also be proposition of
mathematics.

3) No listing of the propositions outside of mathematics which Gödel proved
are required to make mathematics a consistent system are being offered by
Tyler (or to my knowledge by anybody else).

Mr Tyler,
Since your understating of what Gödel discovered remains superior to us mere
mortals why don't you enlighten us all and provide the missing list of
propositions outside of mathematics which Gödel proved were required to make
mathematics consistent?

2. Tyler's evasive act of denigration.
Tyler mind is mediocre. Mostly it remains closed to the long established
Darwinian tradition of exploring ANY relationship that exists between ANY
subject which can engage evolutionary theory. There are many like him. Their
knee jerk reaction is to protect the ideas that they like against empirical
testing to refutation where the best way to do this is to resort to just an
empty _rationale_, i.e. just a tautology of mathematics. Such people attempt
to employ rhetorical denigration against whosoever is insisting that they
make this test to refutation (such as myself) as just a pathetic attempt to
avoid providing enough _rigor_ to be able to make it.

Because I was and remain a positive Darwinian I strongly advise: feed the
Tyler even after it remains pointless to do so.

Regards,

John Edser
Independent Researcher

edser@ozemail.com.au
Guest
Posted: Mon Jan 22, 2007 10:02 am
Tim Tyler wrote:
Quote:
One problem I see with this is that the connection with
the supposed topic of discussion (biological evolution)
grows pretty tenuous.

Indeed, but that can hardly be avoided; Gödel's theorems don't have
anything to do with evolution in the first place.

Quote:
People being attracted from abroad by debatable material
in John's posts is all very well - but my council to most
of them would be: please don't feed the Edser.

You'll be happy to know I'm now done with Edser.

--
Aatu Koskensilta (aatu.koskensilta@xortec.fi)

"Wovon man nicht sprechen kann, daruber muss man schweigen"
- Ludwig Wittgenstein, Tractatus Logico-Philosophicus
John Edser
Posted: Mon Jan 22, 2007 5:25 pm
Guest
j.wilkins1@uq.edu.au (John Wilkins) wrote:-


Quote:
That's an incredibly bad article, that needs to be revised and
updated.
One day.

JE:-
I agree entirely. Who wrote it, Dr L Moran?

Some undergraduate...

JE:-
Really, from what university?

He would have been at Monash University at the time.

JE:-
The university of the same name here in Australia?

Regards,

John Edser
Independent Researcher

edser@ozemail.com.au
John Edser
Posted: Mon Jan 22, 2007 5:25 pm
Guest
aatu.koskensilta@xortec.fi wrote:-

Quote:
People being attracted from abroad by debatable material
in John's posts is all very well - but my council to most
of them would be: please don't feed the Edser.

You'll be happy to know I'm now done with Edser.

JE:-
You will be unhappy to know that I am not done with you.

Regards,

John Edser
Independent Researcher

edser@ozemail.com.au
John Wilkins
Posted: Tue Jan 23, 2007 10:33 am
Guest
John Edser <edser@ozemail.com.au> wrote:

Quote:
j.wilkins1@uq.edu.au (John Wilkins) wrote:-


That's an incredibly bad article, that needs to be revised and
updated.
One day.

JE:-
I agree entirely. Who wrote it, Dr L Moran?

Some undergraduate...

JE:-
Really, from what university?

He would have been at Monash University at the time.

JE:-
The university of the same name here in Australia?

I expect so. Sir John Monash is not widely known outside Australia...

--
John S. Wilkins, Postdoctoral Research Fellow, Biohumanities Project
University of Queensland - Blog: scienceblogs.com/evolvingthoughts
"He used... sarcasm. He knew all the tricks, dramatic irony, metaphor,
bathos, puns, parody, litotes and... satire. He was vicious."
Guest
Posted: Tue Jan 23, 2007 10:33 am
John Edser wrote:
Quote:
You will be unhappy to know that I am not done with you.

Why? If you're interested in pursuing the subject of the incompleteness
theorems of mathematical logic, may I suggest we do so in a more
approriate newsgroup, such as sci.logic. I doubt many people here are
interested in somewhat erudite technicalities of a somewhat marginal
branch of mathematics.

[moderator's note: I have to agree; interesting as all this Godel
stuff is, this thread has long since lost any relevance to evolutionary
biology. Perhaps it should go to email, or as is suggested here, to
a more relevant newsgroup. - JAH]


As to some of the questions you asked in your earlier post, here are my
answers.

You write in part:

I remain flabbergasted that you can see no connection between the
above and
what Gödel discovered which Fanzen puts in (non reversible English)
to
mean:-

"The mathematician Godel proved that a system of axioms can never be
based on itself: statements from outside the system must be used in
order to
prove its consistency."

Please very carefully explain to all of us here why any rationalist
cannot
just retort: Well, very OBVIOUSLY only because ALL of the axioms of
mathematics were and remain, TAUTOLOGIES. IF this is NOT true then
please
provide just a single axiom which is not a tautology.

First of all, the quote you give is not from Torkel Franzén, but is
one of the numerous examples from news debates Torkel uses to
illustrate certain widespread and natural reactions to the
incompleteness theorems. And in fact, the claim that Gödel proved that
"a system of axioms can never be based on itself" is itself somewhat
obscure, and has no clear content per se; it makes sense only as a
loose expression of the correct claim following after the semicolon,
that a formal system can only be proved consistent - as long as it
meets certain technical criteria - using principles that are not
contained in the system.

As to the question of whether "ALL of the axioms of mathematics were
and remain, TAUTOLOGIES" and its connection to the incompleteness
theorem, I can offer very few comments. This is because you are here
using the term 'tautology' in some way not in accord with the usual
usage in mathematical logic.

You also press me to answer the following question:

"Perhaps you might to like explain why "<=>" does not mean "entirely
reversible" proving just a tautologous logical linkage?"

The reason the symbol "<=>" in Torkel's explanation does not mean
"entirely reversible" and "proving just a tautologous logical linkage"
is simply that "<=>" there is a standard logical symbol, used to denote
material implication in logical formulas. What the diagonal lemma
establishes is that, for every arithmetical formula B(x), we can
construct a formula A such that B(#A) <=> A is provable in the relevant
theory, where #A is the Gödel number of A. This equivalence is not
"tautologous" in any standard sense, in that it is not a logical truth,
in the ordinary technical sense of the word, that A is equivalent to
B(#A), but rather a mathematically established equivalence. Whatever
tautologies are taken to be - the exact definition differs in all sorts
of innessential ways from author to author - it is common to all
accounts that they are in any case logical truths.

You further write:

Please note: Franzen has acknowledged above that what Gödel
discovered does
have valid applications outside of mathematics (which has to be true
to
remain consistent to what he discovered).

Please list these valid applications for sbe reader's to view.

Gödel's theorems have all sorts of applications outside of mathematics
proper, mostly if not exclusively in the philosophy of mathematics.
Historically the most important of these is that a foundational
programme known as Hilbert's programme can't be carried out. This, of
course, is mainly of historical interest. Perhaps the most important
application of Gödel's theorems has to do with the formal
characterizability of the totality of mathematical statements that are
(potentially) recognizable as correct by us. For it follows from the
incompleteness theorem that for any formal theory T we recognize as
correct, there is at least one arithmetical truth that is (potentially)
acceptable to us, but not contained in T. This apparent
"inexhaustibility" of mathematics demonstrates, for example, that all
of the implications we could potentially recognize as correct of
informal, and informally correct, principles such as

Whatever property P is, if 0 has P, and n+1 has P whenever n
has P, then all naturals have P

are not captured in any formal theory (potentially) recognizable by us
as correct. (Of course, it is not at all ruled out that all statements
(potentially) acceptable by us on basis of some informal principles
are, in fact, captured in some formal theory we happen *not* to
recognize as correct).

In the philosophy of mathematics proof theoretical research on this
phenomenon led to a formal characterization, by Solomon Feferman and
Kurt Schütte, of a foundational stance known as predicativism,
proponents of which have included Poincare and Weyl.

In closing, unless you wish to take this to sci.logic, I offer the
following reflections by the proof theorist Girard. Girard, on p. 75 of
his _Proof Theory and Logical Complexity_ - one of
my all time favourite books on proof theory - writes:

Gödel's theorems are very popular; this popularity comes from the
fact
that, undoubtedly, the theorems have deep philosophical meaning. The
natural temptation is to extrapolate, exactly to abstract the
theorems
from their mathematical context, in order to get less precise, but
more general statements. The usual experience of the proof-theorists
is that, in a first step one usually gets so struck that one tries
to reformulate one's personal view of the world to fit the contents
of the theorems. Later on, with a reasonable experience of these
results, this kind of "dramatic" consequences appear as ridiculous
extrapolations. The situation is quite different with outsiders
(philosophers, poets, musicians, journalists ...) who have usually
no opportunity to correct their first impressions concerning the
theorems through mathematical practice.

- - -

In fact, what happens with Gödel's theorems is that some people use
it as a scientific alibi for their fantasies; for instance, there is
the idea of /transgression/ (of the limits of a theory) in Gödel's
theorems; but the idea of transgression are most fashionable among
painters and musicians of the XX^th century, and these people can
refer to Gödel's theorems. But at the turn of the century, they
would
have referred to Malleré for instance, who expressed the ideas of
transgression, in very beautiful and cryptic poems; the difference
between Mallermé and Gödel, is that Mallermé's poems are perfectly
adapted to this situation, whereas it is dishonest to use Gödel's
result in a completely metaphorical (and usually incorrect) sense.

--
Aatu Koskensilta (aatu.koskensilta@xortec.fi)

"Wovon man nicht sprechen kann, daruber muss man schweigen"
- Ludwig Wittgenstein, Tractatus Logico-Philosophicus
Nam D. Nguyen
Posted: Wed Jan 24, 2007 7:38 am
Guest
aatu.koskensilta@xortec.fi wrote:
Quote:
Tim Tyler wrote:
One problem I see with this is that the connection with
the supposed topic of discussion (biological evolution)
grows pretty tenuous.

Indeed, but that can hardly be avoided; Gödel's theorems don't have
anything to do with evolution in the first place.

I'm not "feeding" JE, but I'd not be too fast here either. Mathematical
formalism is supposed to be the language of sciences (biology included).
Formalization of biology (such as ALIFE, and AI), therefore, would have
to be viewed under the very same light of Godel's Incompleteness, just as
any other mathematical theories. But unlike certain theories where a model
is the set of natural numbers, biology formalization might be syntactically
possible, without us knowing an infinite (biological) model. And this
formalization-without-model would indeed reveal the weakness of reasoning
in general, and Incompleteness in particular.

So the relationship between the two (biology processes and Gödel's theorems)
might not be in that much "don't have anything to do [with each other]", as
we initially suspect. But I suspect that it would be a long while before
an MD (Medical Doctor) would know what Incompleteness means, and a math Phd.
would care what RNA stands for, and we'd have a well-rounded curriculum,
where a branch of mathematics would be biology-formalism. So yes, it's best
not to talk too much about both in this forum.

Quote:

People being attracted from abroad by debatable material
in John's posts is all very well - but my council to most
of them would be: please don't feed the Edser.

You'll be happy to know I'm now done with Edser.

--
Aatu Koskensilta (aatu.koskensilta@xortec.fi)

"Wovon man nicht sprechen kann, daruber muss man schweigen"
- Ludwig Wittgenstein, Tractatus Logico-Philosophicus


John Edser
Posted: Wed Jan 24, 2007 7:38 am
Guest
j.wilkins1@uq.edu.au (John Wilkins) wrote:-

Quote:
j.wilkins1@uq.edu.au (John Wilkins) wrote:
That's an incredibly bad article, that needs to be revised and
updated.
One day.

JE:-
I agree entirely. Who wrote it, Dr L Moran?

Some undergraduate...

JE:-
Really, from what university?

He would have been at Monash University at the time.

JE:-
The university of the same name here in Australia?

I expect so. Sir John Monash is not widely known outside Australia...

JE:-
So why hasn't Moran corrected it?

Regards,

John Edser
Independent Researcher

edser@ozemail.com.au
John Edser
Posted: Thu Jan 25, 2007 9:09 am
Guest
Quote:
snip
Indeed, but that can hardly be avoided; Gödel's theorems don't have
anything to do with evolution in the first place.


Quote:
snip
Mathematical
formalism is supposed to be the language of sciences (biology included).
Formalization of biology (such as ALIFE, and AI), therefore, would have
to be viewed under the very same light of Godel's Incompleteness, just as
any other mathematical theories. But unlike certain theories where a model
is the set of natural numbers, biology formalization might be
syntactically
possible, without us knowing an infinite (biological) model. And this
formalization-without-model would indeed reveal the weakness of reasoning
in general, and Incompleteness in particular.

JE:-
I would put the above in a different way: Russell's paradox (what is the set
of sets) was NOT _solved_ by Gödel. All that was proven was Russell's
paradox remains irrational. This is where this matter has been left to rot.
To solve it the missing propositions which are NOT of mathematics proven by
Gödel to be absolutely required to make mathematics consistent have to be:

*Listed only using NON mathematical propositions*


Anything else contradicts ENTIRELY what Gödel discovered. I request that
these missing propositions become so listed. So far nobody has offered to
list them (probably because they do not know what they are!)


Any rationalist will tell you that Russell's paradox, which represents an
infinite regress, remains symptomatic of an empty tautology. The "set of
sets" MUST include itself otherwise it falls into Epimenides Paradox (it
just _entirely_ contradicts itself). Russell and Whitehead attempted to make
the set of sets NOT include itself only allowing their infinite regress
"solution". Tautologies remain irrational only because they have no frame of
reference. It seems nobody has learnt this simple lesson from Galileo. We
are not just banding about esoteric ideas here. Everything, including
mathematics remains EMPIRICALLY based. Anybody and their cat can observe
themselves as an empty tautology by simply arranging two carefully aligned
parallel mirrors and standing between them. The mathematics continues to
work here but not the rationale. THAT remains based entirely on the frame of
reference which allows anybody to see that two mirrors are facing each
other. If you take away any constant frame of reference hen all you can see
now may drive you insane.


Quote:
So the relationship between the two (biology processes and Gödel's
theorems)
might not be in that much "don't have anything to do [with each other]",
as
we initially suspect.

JE:-
They have _everything_ to do with each other. The universal set which
sparked Russell's Paradox (which Gödel proved remained irrational) is NOT a
proposition of mathematics it was and remains, ENTIRELY an inductive
proposition of physics (just a good guess). IOW mathematics remains
predicated by NON MATHEMATICS (this is what Gödel discovered put in rational
form). Reworked as simply as possible: mathematics always was and will
always remain, entirely deductive from non mathematics.

Regards,

John Edser
Independent Researcher

edser@ozemail.com.au
 
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