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John Edser
Posted: Tue Jan 16, 2007 2:13 pm
Guest
aatu.koskensilta@xortec.fi wrote:-
Quote:
John Edser wrote:
Tautologies can be continuously expanded (e.g. mathematics). However
they
only remain rational if they can be deduced from a NON tautology (become
the
subject of an assumed predicate and not the reverse). I consider this is
what Gödel has proven. All of mathematics remains just a tautology which
can
only remain rational if mathematics is entirely deductive from a
predicate
outside of mathematics.


Quote:
Why not find out what Gödel actually did prove? As an antidote against
the kind of metaphorical rambling you seem to prefer,..

Mr Koskensilta,

I strongly suggest you replace your consistent rhetoric (previously I was
accused of "babbling" and now I am accused of "metaphorical rambling") with
NON EVASION. Your _continuous evasion_ of my detailed reply to you as to why
I argue Gödel proved that mathematics was and remains just a tautology does
not add any credibility to your position:

-------------------------2nd repost --------------------------------

I am only referring to the logical connection between G and T and not to
what they represent because it remains irrelevant to this argument.

There are only THREE possible logical linkages:

1) G is irreversibly logically linked to T

Indicated by: G --> T

2) T is irreversibly logically linked to G

Indicated by: T --> G

Where: 1 contradicts 2 and of course 2 contradicts 1.

3) G and T remain reversibly logically linked

Indicated by: G <--> T or T <--> G

Please answer if you agree or disagree.

----------------------------- end ------------------------------------------


Quote:
I suggest you
have a look at the late Torkel Franzén's page on the incompleteness
theorems at

http://www.sm.luth.se/~torkel/eget/godel.html

JE:-
I have read the article with exasperation. AT NO TIME does Torkel Franzén
even mention the concept of a TAUTOLOGY let alone include
how it necessarily contrasts to a NON tautology within any
RATIONAL system. The closest we seem to get to this seems to be:

"Gödel's proof makes essential use of what is called the diagonal lemma for
T. This is a general result about T stating that for every formula B(x) with
one free variable x - meaning that B(x) asserts something about the
unspecified number x - a formula A (known as a fixpoint for B(x)) can be
constructed such that

T |- A<=>B(#A)"

Perhaps you might to like explain why "<=>" does not mean "entirely
reversible" proving just a tautologous logical linkage?

Franzen clearly noted what he considers to be a CORRECT statement in WORDS
(i.e. as a non reversible rational proposition with a subject and a
predicate) as to what Gödel had discovered:

"The mathematician Godel proved that a system of axioms can never be based
on itself: statements from outside the system must be used in order to prove
its consistency."

But all the axioms of mathematics remain logically _reversible_
(tautologous). If you disagree then please provide one that isn't.As any
rationalist knows (but it appears not any logician or mathematician knows),
what Franzen wrote (above) is 100% diagnostic of a tautology. This is
because subject and predicate can only remain entirely reversible within a
tautology. For any tautology to become RATIONAL it has to constitute the
subject of a predicate (NOT the reverse) where the predicate can only exist
OUTSIDE of the tautology and not inside of it. IOW, a tautology must remain
entirely deductive from a NON tautology within a RATIONAL PROPOSITION.

Quote:
I propose that this predicate is the supposition of the universal set.

Though there are certain marginal set theories with a universal set,
such a set is not a part of ordinary mathematics or set theory.

JE:-
As I previously mentioned Gödel contested Russell and Whitehead. Russell's
Paradox only provided an infinite regress "solution" to the question what is
the set of sets?". Paradoxes do not exist. All of them remain diagnostic of
the IRRATIONAL.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Russell's_paradox

from the above webpage:
"Russell and Alfred North Whitehead wrote the three volumes of Principia
Mathematica (PM) hoping to succeed where Frege had failed. They sought to
banish the paradoxes of naive set theory by employing a theory of types they
devised for this purpose. While they succeeded in grounding arithmetic in a
fashion, it is not at all evident that they did so by logic alone. In any
event, Kurt Gödel in 1930-31 proved that the logic of much of PM, now known
as first order logic, is complete, but that Peano arithmetic is necessarily
incomplete if it is consistent. There and then, the logicist program of
Frege-PM died."

Your argument that "though there are certain marginal set theories with a
universal set, such a set is not a part of ordinary mathematics or set
theory" was not correct. Venn diagrams which (only illustrate intersecting
sets and not nested sets) have to (and are) PREDFICATED on the rectangle of
the universal set simply because they have to exist within something (within
at least ONE NESTED SET). However, I entirely agree that as far as
mathematics is concerned, after the universal set predicate has been defined
it was just ignored within mathematics. However, it ceases to be able to
remain ignored whenever anybody questions what mathematics is predicated on
(for obvious reasons). Only rationalists ask such questions (NOT logicians
or mathematicians). Gödel remains unique because he was all of these. I
might add, so are all the best evolutionary theorists. The worst
evolutionary theorists are mathematicians who offer theories without any
frame of reference

Quote:
In any
case, it is difficult to see how the "supposition of the universal set"
is "outside of mathematics".

JE:-
It remains easy to see: the universal set is the defined PREDICATE, i.e. the
INDUCTIVE ASSUMPTION from which everything else exists as just a deduction
(including all tautologies nested within it).

Regards

John Edser
Independent Researcher

edser@ozemail.com.au
John Edser
Posted: Tue Jan 16, 2007 2:13 pm
Guest
Tim Tyler seemysig@cyberspace.org wrote:_

Quote:
The
question at issue for this layman is one of whether the
notion of "survival of the fittest" falls into the category
of logical fallacy known as "hoc, ergo proctor hoc."

This issue has been done to death already, IMO:
http://www.talkorigins.org/faqs/evolphil/tautology.html


Lets have a quick look:-

The webpage starts:-
"The simple version of the so-called 'tautology argument' is this:
Natural selection is the survival of the fittest. The fittest are those that
survive. Therefore, evolution by natural selection is a tautology (a
circular definition).

JE:-
Correct. As Spencer stated it, "survival of the fittest" is indeed, just a
tautology. However the reason why this hits a raw nerve is because
mathematics is also just a tautology where Neo Darwinism remains entirely
based on tautologous mathematics, e.g. Hamilton's Rule. Refer also to
Felsenstein's (unsolved) Cost of Substitution paradox (see post). The proof
of a tautology is the absence of any frame of reference. This frame can only
be a constant term within mathematics where mathematics has no ability to
define one.


The webpage continues:-
"The real significance of this argument is not the argument itself, but that
it was taken seriously by any professional philosophers at all. 'Fitness' to
Darwin meant not those that survive, but those that could be expected to
survive because of their adaptations and functional efficiency, when
compared to others in the population. "This is not a tautology,....

JE:-
Incorrect, it remains a tautology.

The webpage continues:-
".....or, if it is, then so is the Newtonian equation F=ma [Sober 1984,
chapter 2], which is the basis for a lot of ordinary physical explanation."

JE:-
The equation F=ma is not a tautology only because m represents a constant
(NOT a variable) which denotes an independent event of Newtonian physics.
Every time m changes the event changes because the total mass of the
universe remains constant as the simple sum of each m per (independent)
event of physics.

Darwin did not employ the concept of fitness. This remains Herbert Spencer's
contribution. What Darwin stressed was the number of young raised to
adulthood within a population. This means they have to be able to be
"expected to survive because of their adaptations and functional efficiency"
to FERTILE ADULTHOOD SO THAT THEY COULD REPRODUCE. Survival only sets a
limit to reproduction but it cannot set a reproductive maximum. Maximizing a
life span does not necessarily mean you have maximized reproduction. It may
mean that you have minimized reproduction. Due to limited and not unlimited
resources, the best thing to do is free up as many resources as possible for
reproduction by minimizing resources consumed by survival. The logical
relationship between survival and reproduction remains NON reversible: you
have to survive just to be able to reproduce but you do not need to
reproduce in order to survive. Of course this does not apply if you are
talking about phylogenetic "survival" which was and remains an entirely
_ambiguous_ concept.

In my opinion Spencer's tautology "survival of the fittest" has not been
"done to death" it remains alive and kicking wrecking evolutionary theory to
this day. Talk origins needs to revise this paltry discussion of such an
important subject. Who wrote it?

Regards,

John Edser
Independent Researcher

edser@ozemail.com.au



Regards,


Quote:
--
__________
|im |yler http://timtyler.org/ tim@tt1lock.org Remove lock to reply.
John Edser
Posted: Tue Jan 16, 2007 2:13 pm
Guest
John Wilkins wrote:-
Quote:
This issue has been done to death already, IMO:

http://www.talkorigins.org/faqs/evolphil/tautology.html

That's an incredibly bad article, that needs to be revised and updated.
One day.

JE:-
I agree entirely. Who wrote it, Dr L Moran?

Regards,

John Edser
Independent Researcher

edser@ozemail.com.au
John Edser
Posted: Wed Jan 17, 2007 7:52 am
Guest
"g" <gillawton@earthlink.net>


Quote:
JE:-
Tautologies can be continuously expanded (e.g. mathematics). However
they
only remain rational if they can be deduced from a NON tautology
(become
the
subject of an assumed predicate and not the reverse). I consider this
is
what Gödel has proven. All of mathematics remains just a tautology.."

I, too, sense in John's assertions at times some commitments to
metaphors that rest upon postulational eclecticisms different from
my own; and I realize that -- to challenge John on his own
postulatational choices -- is difficult. That is to say, GIVEN his
assumptions, he seems inclined to resort back to them.

JE:-
Gil, this is a science list and not just a logic or mathematics list. What
is required of everybody here, including myself and Mr Koskensilta, are the
following three things.


i) Defined terms.

ii) Use of self consistent arguments (no contradictions allowed).

iii) Provide verifiable and refutable premises not just premises which
can be verified or non verified.

If I label terms differently (which I take great pains to avoid doing but I
may have to define new concepts with new labels because the concept has not
been previously employed) then all that has to be done is for the respondent
to provide the more accepted label.


Quote:
But this does not make John so very different from most of the
brightest individuals I have met in all my humble little life. Most
of them seem to me to be inclined to have been inculcated
(acculturated) to accept certain choices of postulates in their lives,
OR to have examined many alternative postulates about this
life, and accommodated their own intuitions about them to the
point of *internalizing* them. That is to say, that they have
arrived at their own unique eclectic of stances and have -- in
their own minds -- substituted them for "givens."

JE:-
Gil, My dispute with Mr Koskensilta is based on his evasion of the solution
I provided as to how mathematics can be deductive from non mathematics.

Quote:
In my own life and thoughts, I strive humbly, sincerely, diligently
to open my mind and to defer to the fact, at least, that other
postulational stances than those I have been "taught" to prefer,
or that I have selected for my own belief system, are not "givens"
but intellectual choices.

This allows me personal intellectual freedom to reach different
conclusions than others reach, and still appreciate their "logical"
conclusions which differ from my own.

At one time in my many decades of living, I was bound up in a
belief that only rigorous postulational thinking, whereby specifically
defined terms, crystal clear unambiguous postulates regarding them,
and precise manipulations of those by logical operations,
constituted the epitome of sound reasoning.

JE:-
I just happen to think that it still is Smile How could non rigorous
postulational thinking, whereby specifically ill defined terms, as clear as
mud ambiguous postulates regarding them and imprecise manipulations of those
by illogical operations constitute the epitome of sound reasoning?


Quote:
HOWEVER, I found myself unable to apply such definitions to the
real world, unable to be certain which postulates complied with
which material reality precisely, and unable to determine WHICH
formal logic operations apply to the analysis of which actual set of
phenomena in this "reality" where different operations apply to
different scenarios.

JE:-
The scientific method is what you appear to be are searching for. It
solves the above problems in an evolutionary (NOT revolutionary) way.

The BIG problem today is that the scientific method has become invaded by
epistemologically illiterate mathematicians. Put more exactly: irrefutable
axioms of mathematics are NOT the basis of the reasoning process which is
applied by the sciences simply because all of these axioms remain
tautological.


Quote:
The sensory lens (as a generalized metaphor
to encompass all the human so-called direct sensory experiencing,
direct and indirect) does not allow me -- nor anyone -- to have
exhaustive "knowledge" of all the parameters of anything, to
discern all the mechanisms at work in the progress of things I
perceive only in part, nor to know in every case what algorithm
is "the" algorithm playing out in each natural set of phenomena.

We humans are forced to rely upon "informal logic" -- although this
might seem to be an oxymoron if we think of logic as fixed and
inflexible, or otherwise not logical.

As I experience John's views, in many instances, I find I do not
agree with him, but nonetheless can see, in a sense, his wheels
turning. If I allow him in my mind his own postulational stance,
as a set of *GIVENS*, then he is usually "right."

JE:-
The "givens" I assume remain EMPIRICALLY REFUTABLE, e.g, ANY logical linkage
is EITHER reversible OR non reversible. A child can test this to refutation.
My "givens" are NOT just "my" givens they also constitute valid givens of
science which are required to be tested without prejudice, i.e. not just
evaded.


Quote:
The problem is that I do not concur with some of the postulational
stances John seems to have "internalized" at the very bottom-most
level of his hierarchy of informal logic. That being the case, I
simply read his conclusions reached, and allow myself to be
stimulated to articulate in my own thoughts where some of the
things John seems to perceive to be "GIVENS" are eclectic
assumptions (postulations) to which I believe he is entitled but,
also, which are not "self-evident" nor empirically provable nor
disprovable.

But... I know a few bona fide geniuses who are more set in their
convictions and philosophical commitments even... than John is.

I certainly do see eye to eye with you on the assertion that the
idea of a "universal set," is *UNDEFINED* in any applied
sense.

JE:-
Gil,
The universal set IS DEFINED within mathematics IT JUST REMAINS UNUSED.

Regards,

John Edser
Independent Researcher

edser@ozemail.com.au
John Wilkins
Posted: Wed Jan 17, 2007 7:52 am
Guest
John Edser <edser@ozemail.com.au> wrote:

Quote:
John Wilkins wrote:-
This issue has been done to death already, IMO:

http://www.talkorigins.org/faqs/evolphil/tautology.html

That's an incredibly bad article, that needs to be revised and updated.
One day.

JE:-
I agree entirely. Who wrote it, Dr L Moran?

Some undergraduate...

--
John S. Wilkins, Postdoctoral Research Fellow, Biohumanities Project
University of Queensland - Blog: scienceblogs.com/evolvingthoughts
"He used... sarcasm. He knew all the tricks, dramatic irony, metaphor,
bathos, puns, parody, litotes and... satire. He was vicious."
John Wilkins
Posted: Wed Jan 17, 2007 7:52 am
Guest
g <gillawton@earthlink.net> wrote:

Quote:
My comments on John S. Wilkins' comment on the article at
link provided by Tim Tyler. (See below.)

Perhaps you might rebut, or rewrite that article, John. I,
for one, would be delighted to read what you would write.

MEANTIME, let me convey that I am surprised no one (yet)
has corrected me on my rather not-quite-right defining of
"fitness" as the *concept* is well-utilized by researchers.

(See in this paragraph.) As you can see, this old layman is
about trying to understand things -- not take intractable
stances. "Fitness," as the term is used in peer-reviewed
writings applies to more than just (as I too narrowly put
it) *having* just survived. It is at least broad enough to
mean "survived and reproduced" and may might ought to
include "survived and reproduced offspring capable, also
of surviving and reproducing, and in sufficient numbers
to maintain their niche in a given ecology."

Fitness is IMO an abstract property of models of population genetics. It
basically means the "reproductive investment" (Fisher's preferred term)
in progeny over many generations. Any organism that has many surviving
descendants after at *least* three generations is fitter than one that
doesn't.

Fitness is also applied to variant traits, or alleles in genetics, and
the same thing applies - if the copy of the gene in one generation has
many descendant copies in a later generation, and a competing allele
doesn't, then it is fitter than that competitor.

Fitness has some philosophical accounts - one is the "propensity"
definition, in which the fitness of a gene/organism is its propensity to
survive and reproduce. Another is the frequency definition (basically
frequentist statistics of gene/organism variants).

The frequentist account leads to tautology - a fitter allele/organism
variant is just that which has more progeny after some number of
generations. It's true by definition, and hence doesn't explain why [but
remains true for all that]. But the propensity account is at best merely
a sketch, since the principle of natural selection fails to give any
account of the propensity.

In my view, NS is not an explanation of changes in the frequencies of
variants in a population; it's an explanation *sketch*. In short, it's
like a syllogistic form - you must plug in true values to get an actual
explanation. NS is not a mechanism, it's a form of dynamic adduced to
explain particular cases.

Sober noted that fitness was a "supervenient property" in his 1984 book
- the same fitness can be realised by many different physical systems -
a virus can have the same fitness as a flowering plant. But if any two
physical systems - say members of the same flower species - are
physically identical (in the relevant respects, and there's the rub)
they should have thye same fitness in the same environment.

But what are these "relevant respects"? The answer that satisfies me is
that they are those physical and biological properties of the organisms
that are identical with respect to a fitness account, that is, which
satisfy the criteria for inclusion in a population genetics model.
Hence, in my view, fitness is an abstraction, not a property of
realworld systems.

That's my stand this week, anyway.
Quote:

Does that accord with what some posters who are actually
in research, and actually have written papers for peer-review
would include, and not exclude, as covering your usage of it?

g
g wrote:
And, as far as
the term "fitness" having a pragmatic value in research,
there is no question of it. "Fitness" is the quality of
*having* survived. That is not the question at issue. The
question at issue for this layman is one of whether the
notion of "survival of the fittest" falls into the category
of logical fallacy known as "hoc, ergo proctor hoc."

This issue has been done to death already, IMO:

http://www.talkorigins.org/faqs/evolphil/tautology.html

That's an incredibly bad article, that needs to be revised and updated.
One day.

--
John S. Wilkins, Postdoctoral Research Fellow, Biohumanities Project
University of Queensland - Blog: scienceblogs.com/evolvingthoughts
"He used... sarcasm. He knew all the tricks, dramatic irony, metaphor,
bathos, puns, parody, litotes and... satire. He was vicious."



--
John S. Wilkins, Postdoctoral Research Fellow, Biohumanities Project
University of Queensland - Blog: scienceblogs.com/evolvingthoughts
"He used... sarcasm. He knew all the tricks, dramatic irony, metaphor,
bathos, puns, parody, litotes and... satire. He was vicious."
John Edser
Posted: Wed Jan 17, 2007 7:52 am
Guest
Bob Kolker nowhere@nowhere.com wrote:-

Quote:
Why not find out what Gödel actually did prove? As an antidote against
the kind of metaphorical rambling you seem to prefer, I suggest you
have a look at the late Torkel Franzén's page on the incompleteness
theorems at
http://www.sm.luth.se/~torkel/eget/godel.html

Damn! I miss Torkel (he died recently). We will not have another like
him for some time. When people spewed nonsense about Goedel's results,
Torkel would come down upon then like the Avenging Angel of Mathematical
Logic.

JE:-
Sorry Bob, but what Torkel missed ENTIRELY was the simple fact that
tautologies cannot be defended (or assaulted) because on their own (without
a predicate) they remain irrefutable dictates.

Regards,

John Edser
Independent Researcher

edser@ozemail.com.au
Tim Tyler
Posted: Wed Jan 17, 2007 7:52 am
Guest
John Wilkins wrote:
Quote:
Tim Tyler <seemysig@cyberspace.org> wrote:
g wrote:

Sometimes this layman ponders evolutionary mechanisms in the abstract.

Let me explain.

We are all too familiar with the wide-spread popular notion
of "survival of the fittest." As this layman has submitted
previously (and shall not beat the drum again here), he
discerns that the expression "survival of the fittest" is
at worst a begging of a circular logic, wherein that which
is most fit survives, and the way we know -- therefore --
what species or individual is most fit? Because it's still
here.

But, again, that is at its worst. And this layman, liking
to look at all the various sides of any idea, does not wish
to bog down in any logically circular cul de sac, but
wishes to see as much sense as can be seen. And, as far as
the term "fitness" having a pragmatic value in research,
there is no question of it. "Fitness" is the quality of
*having* survived. That is not the question at issue. The
question at issue for this layman is one of whether the
notion of "survival of the fittest" falls into the category
of logical fallacy known as "hoc, ergo proctor hoc."

This issue has been done to death already, IMO:

http://www.talkorigins.org/faqs/evolphil/tautology.html

That's an incredibly bad article, that needs to be revised and updated.
One day.

Nontheless, the first five sentences correctly explain the issue
and its resolution:

``The simple version of the so-called 'tautology argument' is this:

Natural selection is the survival of the fittest. The fittest are
those that survive. Therefore, evolution by natural selection is a
tautology (a circular definition).

The real significance of this argument is not the argument itself,
but that it was taken seriously by any professional philosophers at
all. 'Fitness' to Darwin meant not those that survive, but those that
could be expected to survive because of their adaptations and
functional efficiency, when compared to others in the population.''

- http://www.talkorigins.org/faqs/evolphil/tautology.html
--
__________
|im |yler http://timtyler.org/ tim@tt1lock.org Remove lock to reply.
dkomo
Posted: Thu Jan 18, 2007 10:18 am
Guest
g wrote:

Quote:
"dkomo" <dkomo871@comcast.net> wrote in message
news:eogg3v$btd$1@darwin.ediacara.org...

g wrote:


Sometimes this layman ponders evolutionary mechanisms in the abstract.

Let me explain.

We are all too familiar with the wide-spread popular notion of "survival
of
the fittest."
As this layman has submitted previously (and shall not beat the drum
again
here), he
discerns that the expression "survival of the fittest" is at worst a
begging
of a circular
logic, wherein that which is most fit survives, and the way we know --
therefore -- what
species or individual is most fit? Because it's still here.


Don't mean to sound captious, but are you aware your prose comes out
looking like the above on my newsreader? The line wrapping is all
screwed up.


--dkomo@cris.com


YES !

Thank you for bringing attention to the fact it is controllable. How do you
control it?


Your later posts to this thread look okay, so you apparently found the
problem.

Quote:
I'm doing something wrong, and have experimented to try to correct it,
and failed. I tried just letting my email client program wrap at will, and
have tried wrapping where I think the news server wants me to, and it
still comes out jagged.


In general, only hit "enter" at the end of a paragraph, never at the end
of a line. Most newsreaders will wrap lines automatically at the line
length set for the reader. I have mine set at 72 characters, so lines
will wrap at this point. If you an extra carriage return at the end of
a line as well, it will immediately wrap the line, so you end up with a
jagged effect like above. You won't however see this when you're typing
in the editor of your client program.

Quote:
Can you tell me how to fix it?

JAH, too... what am I doing wrong to cause this????

Also, JAH, when I subscribed to the news group on my new, non-SCSI
hard drive, the archiving of postings is TOTALLY DIFFERENT from
the way it comes out on the old (gradually being phases out) hard drive.


[moderator's note: No idea. The fact that you changed hard drives should
have absolutely no impact on this: so long as your network connection
stayed the same, and you're using the same client and settings for
news reading and posting, nothing should have changed. If you've had
to reinstall the software, you may well have changed the settings,
and that could be the cause of the changes. - JAH]


Quote:
Thanks, dkomo871.

(By the way, I have a PhD biologist friend whose name is Comeaux
-- corrupted French descent (:>). He is a world class vinologist.
Can't help wondering if your email address conceals another spelling.
But DON'T RESPOND TO THAT, if it is a decoy name to divert
spammers.)


It's more of a nym to divert net stalkers. If you use a real name on
Usenet, anybody can find your home address in a few minutes with the
right software. So if you piss somebody off...


--dkomo@cris.com
John Edser
Posted: Thu Jan 18, 2007 10:18 am
Guest
Tim Tyler seemysig@cyberspace.org wrote:-

Quote:
Nontheless, the first five sentences correctly explain the issue
and its resolution:


JE:-
Yes, "the first five sentences correctly explain the issue", but
emphatically NOT, "and its resolution"!


Quote:
``The simple version of the so-called 'tautology argument' is this:

Natural selection is the survival of the fittest. The fittest are
those that survive. Therefore, evolution by natural selection is a
tautology (a circular definition).

The real significance of this argument is not the argument itself,
but that it was taken seriously by any professional philosophers at
all.

JE:-
The irony of ironies is that it was just the "philosophers" who pointed out
Spencer's rework of Darwin and Wallace's "natural selection" into "survival
of the fittest" constituted a tautology and not the Neo Darwinists who
continue to peddle exactly the same tautology hidden away within uncorrected
oversimplifications of Darwinism.



Quote:
'Fitness' to Darwin meant not those that survive, but those that
could be expected to survive because of their adaptations and
functional efficiency, when compared to others in the population.'

JE:-
Tim has failed, the author has failed (just as Spencer failed) to identify
the correct PREDICATE for survival as in: survive for WHAT reason? Answer:
organism reproduction. For natural selection to become explicable, survival
as a predicate remains entirely _insufficient_.

The predicate of any sentence represents a critical induction while the
subject, just a deduction from it.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Predicate_(grammar)

Survival predicated by reproduction means you must minimally survive to
fertile adulthood. The mind numbingly obvious proposition that genes locked
away within immature sterile bodies can only have a zero fitness simply
because, even though these genes may be able to replicate within that body
they have exactly a zero fitness until the body can reproduce itself.

As I previously pointed out "survive" remains hopelessly ambiguous unless it
becomes predicated by "reproduction" subject to "organism" because it can
become misconstrued to mean a gene centric form of phylogenetic survival.

Regards,

John Edser
Independent Researcher

edser@ozemail.com.au
Entertained by my own EIM
Posted: Thu Jan 18, 2007 10:18 am
Guest
"John Edser" <edser@ozemail.com.au> wrote in message
news:eoeg0p$q07$1@darwin.ediacara.org...
Quote:
JE:-
snip
The correct
subject and predicate is not "organism and survival" it is "organism and
reproduction": Those organisms which reproduce more per population are
considered fitter than those which reproduce less simply because only
those
which reproduce more can ever replace others over time, no matter how
short
in life span the fitter organism happens to be.
snip

<snip>
Quote:
Gene populations expanding _within_ organisms do not constitute a
phylogeny
of genes within evolutionary theory. It is the organism induction which
includes organism reproduction which remains absolutely essential for any
testable evolutionary science. In fact, each organism must also be fertile
just to be able to replicate genes phylogenetically allowing better
"phylogenetic survival"! IOW the Darwinian selectee is exactly one fertile
organism and not just any organism.

I don't know if I can agree or not until you tell me (us) what you mean by
"fertile".

Do you mean it in the sense of "viable" - as in "having the potential to
produce likewise viable offspring"?
If you do then my EPT recognition has always, and perfectly obviously
overlapped with yours.
----

IMHO, it is impossible to insist that organisms [of populations that evolve
by
way of the Principle of Natural (heritable variation) and Selection] who,
individually, were
*not even potentially* reproductive (hence, were never "candidates for
'ancestorhood' or 'forebearship'" Smile) were "selectees" [i.e., were selected
positively or negatively from by opportune and adverse types of
pressures/challenges in "individual life|space|time" - as part of the
Evolutionary Patterning Totality], and to be 'evolution-theoretically sane'
at the same time. ;-)

Cheers

P
John Edser
Posted: Thu Jan 18, 2007 12:39 pm
Guest
j.wilkins1@uq.edu.au (John Wilkins) wrote:-

Quote:
This issue has been done to death already, IMO:

http://www.talkorigins.org/faqs/evolphil/tautology.html

That's an incredibly bad article, that needs to be revised and
updated.
One day.

JE:-
I agree entirely. Who wrote it, Dr L Moran?

Some undergraduate...

JE:-
Really, from what university?

Regards,

John Edser
Independent Researcher

edser@ozemail.com.au
g
Posted: Thu Jan 18, 2007 12:39 pm
Guest
"John Wilkins" <j.wilkins1@uq.edu.au> wrote in message
news:eolnpd$29es$1@darwin.ediacara.org...

(MUCHISIMOS SNIPPOS)
Quote:

That's my stand this week, anyway.

Well, your this-week-stand surely reads like a carefully studied
treatment of it. Well received.

Just want you to know that last sentence you wrote (the one not
snipped, above) moves you up still one MORE notch on my
respectum list. Show me a guy who does not believe his today's
opinion is the last one he's *ever going to need*, and I'll show
you an opinion I can really believe is worth much careful
consideration (:>).

g
Quote:
John S. Wilkins, Postdoctoral Research Fellow, Biohumanities Project
University of Queensland - Blog: scienceblogs.com/evolvingthoughts
"He used... sarcasm. He knew all the tricks, dramatic irony, metaphor,
bathos, puns, parody, litotes and... satire. He was vicious."
Aatu Koskensilta
Posted: Thu Jan 18, 2007 12:39 pm
Guest
John Edser wrote:
Quote:
I strongly suggest you replace your consistent rhetoric (previously I was
accused of "babbling" and now I am accused of "metaphorical rambling") with
NON EVASION.

I have not pretended to address your rambling, or if you like the term
better, babbling, with any arguments. Indeed, there is no point for me
to do so, since my interests lie solely in the incompleteness theorems
and their invocations by your fine self and others. Going on about
"irreversible linkage", "tautologicity" and what have you, in relation
to the incompleteness theorems is pointless, unless you somehow connect
your ideas to the actual mathematical content of the theorems. Otherwise
you might as well quote the fundamental theorem of arithmetic or
Dirichlet's theorem.

Quote:
I have read the article with exasperation. AT NO TIME does Torkel Franzén
even mention the concept of a TAUTOLOGY let alone include
how it necessarily contrasts to a NON tautology within any
RATIONAL system.

Of course not. There is no apparent connection between these things and
the actual mathematical content of the incompleteness theorem.

Quote:
The closest we seem to get to this seems to be:

"Gödel's proof makes essential use of what is called the diagonal lemma for
T. This is a general result about T stating that for every formula B(x) with
one free variable x - meaning that B(x) asserts something about the
unspecified number x - a formula A (known as a fixpoint for B(x)) can be
constructed such that

T |- A<=>B(#A)"

Perhaps you might to like explain why "<=>" does not mean "entirely
reversible" proving just a tautologous logical linkage?

Here Torkel is just explaining a technical theorem pertaining certain
formal theories T. According to the diagonal lemma, as he explains, for
any formula B(x) we can find a formula A such that it is provable in T
that A is true just in case the Gödel number of A has the property
expressed by B(x). What this has to do with "entirely reversible" or
"tautologous logical linkage" cannot be determined unless you provide
some way of relating these notions to the standard logical notions of
formal provability, equivalence, Gödel numberings and so forth.

Quote:
Franzen clearly noted what he considers to be a CORRECT statement in WORDS
(i.e. as a non reversible rational proposition with a subject and a
predicate) as to what Gödel had discovered:

"The mathematician Godel proved that a system of axioms can never be based
on itself: statements from outside the system must be used in order to prove
its consistency."

This is indeed a correct statement: a consistent system satisfying
certain technical conditions can only be proved consistent by using
principles not contained in the system. However, what this has to do
with "a non reversible rational proposition with a subject and a
predicate" remains completely obscure.

Quote:
Your argument that "though there are certain marginal set theories with a
universal set, such a set is not a part of ordinary mathematics or set
theory" was not correct.

Sure it was, as you will find out for yourself if you choose to study
set theory.

Quote:
It remains easy to see: the universal set is the defined PREDICATE, i.e. the
INDUCTIVE ASSUMPTION from which everything else exists as just a deduction
(including all tautologies nested within it).

As usually understood a universal set V is a set such that for every
object a, a is a member of V. The existence of such a set is, on the
face of it, a purely mathematical supposition - a false one, as sets are
usually conceived in mathematics, as it happens.

--
Aatu Koskensilta (aatu.koskensilta@xortec.fi)

"Wovon man nicht sprechen kann, daruber muss man schweigen"
- Ludwig Wittgenstein, Tractatus Logico-Philosophicus
g
Posted: Thu Jan 18, 2007 12:39 pm
Guest
"John Edser" <edser@ozemail.com.au> wrote in message
news:eolnpd$29ej$1@darwin.ediacara.org...
Quote:


"g" <gillawton@earthlink.net
JE:-
Gil, this is a science list and not just a logic or mathematics list. What
is required of everybody here, including myself and Mr Koskensilta, are
the
following three things.


i) Defined terms.

ii) Use of self consistent arguments (no contradictions allowed).

iii) Provide verifiable and refutable premises not just premises which
can be verified or non verified.

If I label terms differently (which I take great pains to avoid doing but
I
may have to define new concepts with new labels because the concept has
not
been previously employed) then all that has to be done is for the
respondent
to provide the more accepted label.

John,

Much good will and much deserved respect.

But with all due good will and deserved respect, please allow me to assert
that my best efforts, so far, to believe that any human could define any
"natural" universal set would require that he know all things within that
set, lest he fail to have tweaked his definition sufficiently to encompass
the very last twit of it.

Also, I have not doubted for an instant that some human may have come
up with a pure logic definition that he has elected to name "the universal
set."
Indeed, it would surprise me if at least one human had not -- in view of the
fact that my experience leads me to believe that humans have come up with
innumerable definitions and provided them with some name for purposes of
reference.

What I do not personally ACCEPT, albeit I approve with much enthusiasm
YOUR right to accept it, if you wish -- is that there can be "the"
definition
of anything in nature derivable by any human mind, nor "the" definition of
anything in pure logic derived by any human mind.

Do I believe that man can, and should, TRY to arrive at "the" definition of
anything in nature? Yes, so long as he does not delude himself that he has
capability of proving he has succeeded at it. But rest assured that any
were to come along who know everything about everything, and that if you
and I likewise could, and that person were to provide us a definition of
"the"
universal set... I would certainly be willing to consider modifying my
choice
of "belief" on this point. Let us not presume that human would be male,
although some would estimate the probability as approximately 50 %.

I personally elect, and feel justified in so electing, to be a bit skeptical
that
any definition of anything is "the" definition of it. Can I prove it is
not?
No. Nor do I believe you can prove that it is. And this is, I think, a
perfect
example of the kind of thing I alluded to in saying elsewhere that I cannot
argue with anything that you say, John, if I grant you your choice of
I-believes (forsaking my own).

I am in total concurrence with Jack Nicholson's character in the movie
"A Few Good Men," who when asked to tell the "truth" about what was at
issue in a military court hearing, "You couldn't handle "the truth."

Nor, do I believe, could I. We have not -- either you nor I -- access to
the
truth, but do each perceive we have at least a little exposure to some of
its consequences and its symptoms. And... again all I offer is my
far-more-than-CASUALLY-thought-through and *tentatively held*
opinions on anything. And, so far as I have been persuaded, neither has
any other human.

I know I've said it to death... but if even one reader doesn't know this,
I don't want to give the wrong impression. But... Dr. Einstein once
asserted that he had tried (in coming up with some of his definitions,
or advanced-for-his-time perceptions, as I intuit them to have been)
to look at things as Gd (or gd) sees them. Now let me be REMIND
that it DOES NOT MATTER whether he was referring to a deity or
to what an atheistic physicist would intend by it as the aggregate of
the aggregate sum of all existential algorithms playing out in the
aggregate sum of all nature. It works either way. Einstein sought to
put himself in that mode. But then there came along for him to digest
some incompatibilities between micromechanical and quantum
mechanical "laws" which (so far as I know) NOBODY has reconciled.
And the thing about "rolling the dice" suggests to me that Dr. Einstein
withdrew from the Gd's mind arena, or gd's mind arena -- whichever
the case may be.

In any and every human contemplation (per the best of my humble
human capabilities to know or to understand anything) the
contemplation of anything and everything in nature tests human
capacity to be ingenious (no, not engenuous... but ingenious)...
a term I proffer here in tune with Bertrand Russell's definition of
genius...
a term which refers to what Nobel Laureate John Nash sought after...
and failed to attain... and a term which seems to me to coexist only
uncomfortably with Nash's stance that mathematics is a fiercely
competitive sport, or his stance that doing something with the mind
is far more sensible than attending classes on what others have done
with theirs.

Quote:
From the best of my experience and thoughts that I can come up
with, in contemplating your stance on any given thing, or the stance

of the greatest genius who ever may have lived, I perceive all the
highest and best any has to offer (so far) as tentative, as
not inclusive of all the information yet unknown to any, and as
likely to imply paradoxes we humans have no choice but to deny,
or accepting them..., to have to exercise genius to maintain the
ability to think rationally about them.

When I seek to comprehend what others have defined, I reserve the
right to do what I can with the elements they considered in my own
mind... if and to the extent I can... and if I DISCERN MORE
elements to be worthy of consideration than any given human definer
has taken into account in his personal preferences among
unprovable assumptions, OR if I see that the blocks of reason can be
assembled (as in a Rubik's cube) in more than one order, then I am
skeptical that they have come up with anything aptly containing
the designation "the ".

I shall not be drawn into a discussion of truth/validity tables. Neither
of us has any need of revisiting such well-worn drills. Also, let me
share with you that I do not know of any mathematician who EVER
has defined all his terms and proved them all, beyond arbitrarily
closed models (consisting of definitions, operations eclectically
posited, and leading only to where that closed artifice leads, with
the snake of a closed validity model, propagating itself only by
hanging on tooth and claw to the tip of its own internally forced,
logical tail.

(:>)

g
 
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