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Science Forum Index » Languages Forum » Xenolects
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| A.N. Onymous |
Posted: Tue Jan 20, 2004 9:26 am |
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"Brian M. Scott" wrote:
Quote: On Mon, 19 Jan 2004 14:13:29 +0000 Richard Herring
junk@[127.0.0.1]> wrote in
news:alo2QcyJY+CAFwK+@baesystems.com> in sci.lang:
In message <400BDB92.CBE@worldnet.att.net>, Peter T. Daniels
grammatim@worldnet.att.net> writes
Nathan Leahy wrote:
I was shocked to discover no mention of xenolects in sci.lang, so I'll
explain before I ask my question.
Xenolect - (Close to official definition) An artificial language
constructed from a number of dialects with features distinctive of a
number of dialects hacked together.
[...]
Does anyone know of a case where rather than one dialect of a language
achieving official status nad being taught as "proper" a xenolect was
designed and used as an official language?
Indonesian. (Could there be a Dutch-based parallel with Frisian?)
Does either form of Norwegian count?
Nynorsk certainly does.
Otoh, bokmaal does (probably) not count.
Bokmal is derived from written Danish.
Which leads to the question:
"Norwegian" is supposed to be a "West Scandinavian" language. Danish is
supposed to be an
"East Scandinavian" language. Should not Nynorsk be counted as "West", while
Bokmaal is
"East". Or did Bokmaal by a magic trasition 1905 became "West Scandinavian"?
A Nikoalaievitj
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| Fred Mailhot |
Posted: Tue Jan 20, 2004 10:17 am |
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On 1/20/04 12:16 AM, "Helmut Richter" <a282244@mail.lrz-muenchen.de> wrote:
[snip]
Quote: (Yesterday I overheard two Turkish girls talking.
They did not use this dialect, which is more typically used by males,
but they switched languages permanently: about 80% Turkish and 20%
accent-free German. Mostly they switched between sentences but
sometimes also in the middle of a sentence, but constantly at a rate
of tens of switches per minute. Is this a normal phenomenon among
young people grown up in a foreign country?)
Helmut Richter
I suspect that code-switching/mixing is prevalent in any country/region
where kids are exposed to more than one language...here in Montreal it's
quite common. Not limited to kids, either, I still do it all the time, if
I'm speaking w/ someone who I know is at least as biligual as I am...
F. |
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| Torsten Poulin |
Posted: Tue Jan 20, 2004 11:30 am |
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A.N. Onymous wrote:
Quote: Bokmal is derived from written Danish.
Which leads to the question:
"Norwegian" is supposed to be a "West Scandinavian" language.
Danish is supposed to be an "East Scandinavian" language.
Should not Nynorsk be counted as "West", while Bokmaal is
"East". Or did Bokmaal by a magic trasition 1905 became "West
Scandinavian"?
There are many reasons not to distinguish between East and West
Scandinavian. Depending on what features you are looking at,
you would have to draw the boundary in different places. It
probably makes more sense to distinguish between insular (or
North Atlantic, if you like) and continental Scandinavian, but it
still wouldn't be an entirely satisfactory solution.
--
Torsten |
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| António Pedro Marques |
Posted: Wed Jan 21, 2004 12:21 am |
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A.N. Onymous wrote:
Quote: Which leads to the question: "Norwegian" is supposed to be a "West
Scandinavian" language. Danish is supposed to be an "East
Scandinavian" language. Should not Nynorsk be counted as "West",
while Bokmaal is "East". Or did Bokmaal by a magic trasition 1905
became "West Scandinavian"?
No, the answer is that it can be conceived that what in a broader
context is a big divide, in any particular case may be not so important.
For instance, north italian dialects are WR, while the southern are ER,
and Sicilly even begs the question whether it's a transition to SR. Yet,
given the umbrella of the Italian language (which itself is mostly ER),
all are 'italian'. This is not to deny that for instance the northern
dialects can be considered to form a separate language; however, the
reasons for that are not the WR-ER divide but the strong lexical and
sometimes morpho-syntactical distance between dialect and standard that
can be seen in all of Italy (including the south). |
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| Jim Heckman |
Posted: Wed Jan 21, 2004 12:29 am |
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On 20-Jan-2004, Helmut Richter <a282244@mail.lrz-muenchen.de> wrote
in message <slrnc0povc.cqp.a282244@lxhri01.lrz.lrz-muenchen.de>:
[...]
Quote: But I find the term "xenolect" very misleading. What is "foreign" in a
xenolect? When I read the headline, I spontaneously thought about
dialects of foreigners, e.g. the dialect of German-born "native"
Turkish speakers. (Yesterday I overheard two Turkish girls talking.
They did not use this dialect, which is more typically used by males,
but they switched languages permanently: about 80% Turkish and 20%
accent-free German. Mostly they switched between sentences but
sometimes also in the middle of a sentence, but constantly at a rate
of tens of switches per minute. Is this a normal phenomenon among
young people grown up in a foreign country?)
To the examples given by other posters, I'll just add that here
in Los Angeles, currently one of the most cosmopolitan urban
areas in the world, such code-switching is extremely common. Of
course, by far the most frequent case is between English and
Spanish, but I've personally witnessed it among
2nd-generation-American speakers of many other languages,
including, off the top of my head, Mandarin, Korean, Vietnamese,
Tagalog, Arabic and Armenian.
--
Jim Heckman |
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| Nathan Leahy |
Posted: Wed Jan 21, 2004 2:04 am |
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naddy@mips.inka.de (Christian Weisgerber) wrote in message news:<bugurf$bqn$1@kemoauc.mips.inka.de>...
Quote: Nathan Leahy <pretending2breal@yahoo.com> wrote:
Does anyone know of a case where rather than one dialect of a language
achieving official status nad being taught as "proper" a xenolect was
designed and used as an official language?
Standard German.
??? I thought Hochdeutsch was for all intents and purposes Prussian,
with some other North German bits. IIRC Austrian/Bavarian was
unintelligible with Hochdeutsch up until at least the early 1900s |
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| Nathan Leahy |
Posted: Wed Jan 21, 2004 2:07 am |
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Yusuf B Gursey <ybg@TheWorld.com> wrote in message news:<buhqq0$8lv$1@pcls4.std.com>...
Quote: In sci.lang Nathan Leahy <pretending2breal@yahoo.com> wrote in <9732afb9.0401181555.63b18e66@posting.google.com>:
(snip)
: Does anyone know of a case where rather than one dialect of a language
: achieving official status nad being taught as "proper" a xenolect was
: designed and used as an official language?
classical arabic was probably such even during its formulation by medieval
grammarians.
Er... Didn't they just take the Qur-an, say the grammar here is
perfect, pure, and correct and apply that. This implies to me that it
was just Mohammed's dialect. IIRC there are even inconsistencies in
use in the text and the perfection meant that all forms had to be
equally accepted |
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| Nathan Leahy |
Posted: Wed Jan 21, 2004 2:11 am |
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Helmut Richter <a282244@mail.lrz-muenchen.de> wrote in message news:<slrnc0povc.cqp.a282244@lxhri01.lrz.lrz-muenchen.de>...
(snip)
Quote: But I find the term "xenolect" very misleading. What is "foreign" in a
xenolect? When I read the headline, I spontaneously thought about
dialects of foreigners, e.g. the dialect of German-born "native"
Turkish speakers. (Yesterday I overheard two Turkish girls talking.
They did not use this dialect, which is more typically used by males,
but they switched languages permanently: about 80% Turkish and 20%
accent-free German. Mostly they switched between sentences but
sometimes also in the middle of a sentence, but constantly at a rate
of tens of switches per minute. Is this a normal phenomenon among
young people grown up in a foreign country?)
Helmut Richter
IIRC Kanak Sprak? Are there any English resources describing it, it's
similarities and differences to German, and it's social context? |
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| Yusuf B Gursey |
Posted: Wed Jan 21, 2004 7:25 am |
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In sci.lang Nathan Leahy <pretending2breal@yahoo.com> wrote in <9732afb9.0401202307.40e15e6b@posting.google.com>:
: Yusuf B Gursey <ybg@TheWorld.com> wrote in message news:<buhqq0$8lv$1@pcls4.std.com>...
:> In sci.lang Nathan Leahy <pretending2breal@yahoo.com> wrote in <9732afb9.0401181555.63b18e66@posting.google.com>:
: (snip)
:> : Does anyone know of a case where rather than one dialect of a language
:> : achieving official status nad being taught as "proper" a xenolect was
:> : designed and used as an official language?
:>
:> classical arabic was probably such even during its formulation by medieval
:> grammarians.
: Er... Didn't they just take the Qur-an, say the grammar here is
: perfect, pure, and correct and apply that. This implies to me that it
that is a later dogma. there were some who advocated adopting just
whatever is in the Qur'an, but these lost.
: was just Mohammed's dialect. IIRC there are even inconsistencies in
the usually accepted reconstruction among modern linguists was that the
Qur'an was attempted to have been recited in a general norm, but there
are "slippages" into the local dialect.
later, soemtime after the Qur'an, a more formal and codified standard was
established that took some elements of the Qur'an but not all.
: use in the text and the perfection meant that all forms had to be
: equally accepted
it wasn't, at least for general use. |
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| Yusuf B Gursey |
Posted: Wed Jan 21, 2004 7:33 am |
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In sci.lang Peter T. Daniels <grammatim@worldnet.att.net> wrote in <400E7763.7FCC@worldnet.att.net>:
: Nathan Leahy wrote:
:>
:> Yusuf B Gursey <ybg@TheWorld.com> wrote in message news:<buhqq0$8lv$1@pcls4.std.com>...
:> > In sci.lang Nathan Leahy <pretending2breal@yahoo.com> wrote in <9732afb9.0401181555.63b18e66@posting.google.com>:
:> (snip)
:> > : Does anyone know of a case where rather than one dialect of a language
:> > : achieving official status nad being taught as "proper" a xenolect was
:> > : designed and used as an official language?
:> >
:> > classical arabic was probably such even during its formulation by medieval
:> > grammarians.
:>
:> Er... Didn't they just take the Qur-an, say the grammar here is
:> perfect, pure, and correct and apply that. This implies to me that it
:> was just Mohammed's dialect. IIRC there are even inconsistencies in
:> use in the text and the perfection meant that all forms had to be
:> equally accepted
: Except that the consonantal text represents one dialect (which had lost
: glottal stop and various word-final inflections) and the vocalization
loss of word-final inflections is debated. some point to a freer syntax
and passages that would be that would be too ambiguous without
case-endings as evidence of their presence.
there are some features such in the sequence ta (pronominal) + ta
(formative) + verb stem rendered (in the Qur'an) as ta + verb stem, which
did not become part of the standard.
i.e. tatafa33alu > tafa33alu (not accpetabl for general use)e, but
occassionally found in the Qu'ran
: another, more retentive dialect. So all the descriptions, from the
: forerunners of Sibawayhi on, have to account for the compromises. |
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| Yusuf B Gursey |
Posted: Wed Jan 21, 2004 7:36 am |
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In sci.lang Nathan Leahy <pretending2breal@yahoo.com> wrote in <9732afb9.0401202307.40e15e6b@posting.google.com>:
: Yusuf B Gursey <ybg@TheWorld.com> wrote in message news:<buhqq0$8lv$1@pcls4.std.com>...
:>
:> classical arabic was probably such even during its formulation by medieval
:> grammarians.
: Er... Didn't they just take the Qur-an, say the grammar here is
: perfect, pure, and correct and apply that. This implies to me that it
: was just Mohammed's dialect. IIRC there are even inconsistencies in
: use in the text and the perfection meant that all forms had to be
: equally accepted
the standard set by the grammarians never fully matches the dialects they
describe (incl. the Qur'an), but contains various features found
individually in most. |
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| Peter T. Daniels |
Posted: Wed Jan 21, 2004 7:56 am |
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Guest
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Jim Heckman wrote:
Quote:
On 20-Jan-2004, Helmut Richter <a282244@mail.lrz-muenchen.de> wrote
in message <slrnc0povc.cqp.a282244@lxhri01.lrz.lrz-muenchen.de>:
[...]
But I find the term "xenolect" very misleading. What is "foreign" in a
xenolect? When I read the headline, I spontaneously thought about
dialects of foreigners, e.g. the dialect of German-born "native"
Turkish speakers. (Yesterday I overheard two Turkish girls talking.
They did not use this dialect, which is more typically used by males,
but they switched languages permanently: about 80% Turkish and 20%
accent-free German. Mostly they switched between sentences but
sometimes also in the middle of a sentence, but constantly at a rate
of tens of switches per minute. Is this a normal phenomenon among
young people grown up in a foreign country?)
To the examples given by other posters, I'll just add that here
in Los Angeles, currently one of the most cosmopolitan urban
areas in the world, such code-switching is extremely common. Of
course, by far the most frequent case is between English and
Spanish, but I've personally witnessed it among
2nd-generation-American speakers of many other languages,
including, off the top of my head, Mandarin, Korean, Vietnamese,
Tagalog, Arabic and Armenian.
A CLS paper long ago showed that code-switching doesn't happen until two
people have (somehow) established that their competence in the languages
involved is mutually equivalent.
--
Peter T. Daniels grammatim@att.net |
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| Peter T. Daniels |
Posted: Wed Jan 21, 2004 7:58 am |
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Nathan Leahy wrote:
Quote:
Yusuf B Gursey <ybg@TheWorld.com> wrote in message news:<buhqq0$8lv$1@pcls4.std.com>...
In sci.lang Nathan Leahy <pretending2breal@yahoo.com> wrote in <9732afb9.0401181555.63b18e66@posting.google.com>:
(snip)
: Does anyone know of a case where rather than one dialect of a language
: achieving official status nad being taught as "proper" a xenolect was
: designed and used as an official language?
classical arabic was probably such even during its formulation by medieval
grammarians.
Er... Didn't they just take the Qur-an, say the grammar here is
perfect, pure, and correct and apply that. This implies to me that it
was just Mohammed's dialect. IIRC there are even inconsistencies in
use in the text and the perfection meant that all forms had to be
equally accepted
Except that the consonantal text represents one dialect (which had lost
glottal stop and various word-final inflections) and the vocalization
another, more retentive dialect. So all the descriptions, from the
forerunners of Sibawayhi on, have to account for the compromises.
--
Peter T. Daniels grammatim@att.net |
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| António Pedro Marques |
Posted: Wed Jan 21, 2004 3:22 pm |
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Guest
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Nathan Leahy wrote:
Quote: ??? I thought Hochdeutsch was for all intents and purposes Prussian,
with some other North German bits. IIRC Austrian/Bavarian was
unintelligible with Hochdeutsch up until at least the early 1900s
No. |
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